Trauma and Burns

283 questions

Question 201Question →

Emergency medical personnel deliver a 19-year-old male to the emergency department following a gunshot wound to the abdomen. The patient is confused and visibly pale. Initial vital signs include a blood pressure of 72/42 mm Hg, a heart rate of 145/min, and respirations of 26/min. Examination shows a single bullet entry hole in the periumbilical region with no corresponding exit wound. The abdominal wall is rigid, and generalized guarding is present. Bilateral breath sounds are clear. Large-bore intravenous access is obtained, and a massive transfusion protocol is initiated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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Answer: Immediate exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Immediate exploratory laparotomy
The correct answer is immediate exploratory laparotomy. This patient has sustained a penetrating abdominal injury (gunshot wound) and presents with profound hemodynamic instability (hypotension, marked tachycardia) as well as clear clinical signs of peritonitis (rigid abdomen, generalized guarding). According to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols, any patient with a penetrating abdominal injury who is hemodynamically unstable or demonstrates signs of peritonitis requires immediate surgical exploration. The goal is rapid hemostasis and control of gastrointestinal spillage. Diagnostic testing should not delay transfer to the operating room in this critical scenario.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mechanism of injury and the patient's physiological state.
The patient has a penetrating abdominal injury (gunshot wound) and is in profound hemorrhagic shock (blood pressure 72/42 mm Hg, heart rate 145/min).
Determining the mechanism of injury and hemodynamic status dictates the algorithm for trauma management.
2
Evaluate the abdominal physical examination findings.
The patient exhibits a rigid abdomen with generalized guarding, indicating peritonitis from intra-abdominal organ injury.
The presence of peritonitis in the setting of trauma is a crucial decision node for operative intervention.
3
Determine the definitive next step in management.
The patient must be taken directly to the operating room for an immediate exploratory laparotomy.
Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols mandate that patients with penetrating abdominal trauma who are hemodynamically unstable or have peritonitis bypass further diagnostic imaging and proceed directly to surgery.

Key Concept

Management of hemodynamically unstable penetrating abdominal trauma
Question 202Question →

A 42-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department via ambulance after being rescued from a house fire. Paramedics report the injury occurred exactly 2 hours prior to her arrival. On physical examination, she is in significant pain but has a patent airway with no signs of inhalation injury. She has deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns involving her entire anterior torso, her entire left arm, and the anterior surface of her left leg. The remainder of her skin is uninjured. Her weight is 75 kg75\text{ kg}. Large-bore intravenous access is established. Based on the most current Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) guidelines for adult thermal burns, what should be the initial rate of intravenous lactated Ringer solution administration for this patient in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}?

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Answer: 450

Answer

450
Based on the 10th edition ATLS guidelines, adult thermal burns are resuscitated starting at 2 mL/kg/%TBSA2\text{ mL/kg/\%TBSA} (modified Parkland formula). For this patient (75 kg75\text{ kg}, 36% TBSA36\%\text{ TBSA}), the 24-hour requirement is 2×75×36=5,400 mL2 \times 75 \times 36 = 5,400\text{ mL}. Half of this volume (2,700 mL2,700\text{ mL}) is given in the first 8 hours post-injury. Because 2 hours have elapsed since the injury occurred, the 2,700 mL2,700\text{ mL} must be infused over the remaining 6 hours, resulting in a rate of 450 mL/hr450\text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the total percentage of body surface area (%TBSA) burned.
36%
Using the Rule of Nines: anterior torso is 18%, entire left arm is 9%, and anterior left leg is 9%. Sum = 36%.
2
Calculate the total 24-hour fluid resuscitation volume.
5,400 mL
Current ATLS guidelines for adult thermal burns recommend 2 mL x weight (kg) x %TBSA. Therefore, 2 x 75 x 36 = 5,400 mL.
3
Determine the fluid volume required for the first 8 hours post-injury.
2,700 mL
Half of the 24-hour total volume is administered in the first 8 hours post-injury. 5,400 / 2 = 2,700 mL.
4
Calculate the hourly infusion rate.
450 mL/hr
Since 2 hours have elapsed since the injury, the 2,700 mL must be given over the remaining 6 hours (8 - 2 = 6). 2,700 / 6 = 450.

Key Concept

Initial fluid resuscitation for adult thermal burns using the modified Parkland formula (ATLS 10th edition).
Question 203Question →

Emergency medical services bring a 26-year-old male construction worker to the trauma center after he was crushed under a collapsed retaining wall. The patient's primary survey reveals a patent airway, clear breath sounds bilaterally, and stable hemodynamics with a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg and a heart rate of 92/min. Secondary survey is notable for severe pelvic instability, marked perineal ecchymosis, and fresh blood visible at the urethral meatus. Digital rectal examination demonstrates a high-riding prostate. Assuming sequential workup eventually reveals a complete posterior urethral transection accompanied by an intraperitoneal bladder rupture, arrange the following management steps in the correct chronological sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Retrograde urethrogram → Suprapubic cystostomy tube → Retrograde CT cystogram → Exploratory laparotomy → Open reduction and internal fixation of the pelvic ring.
In a hemodynamically stable patient with a severe pelvic fracture and hard signs of urethral injury, full diagnostic imaging must precede surgical intervention. The correct sequence addresses the genitourinary tract chronologically from distal to proximal. The urethra is evaluated first (retrograde urethrogram). Because it is transected, a suprapubic tube is placed to bypass the injury. Once urinary diversion is secured, the bladder can be safely evaluated (CT cystogram). The resulting diagnosis of an intraperitoneal rupture requires immediate visceral surgical repair (laparotomy). Only after the life-threatening visceral injuries are controlled should the definitive orthopedic fixation of the pelvis occur.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate urethral integrity
Perform a retrograde urethrogram
Blood at the urethral meatus and a high-riding prostate strongly suggest urethral injury, mandating a retrograde urethrogram before any catheterization.
2
Establish urinary diversion
Place a suprapubic cystostomy tube
The complete posterior urethral transection contraindicates transurethral Foley catheterization; a suprapubic tube provides necessary bladder decompression.
3
Assess the bladder
Perform a retrograde CT cystogram
With urinary diversion established, the bladder must be evaluated for rupture, which is highly associated with pelvic crush injuries.
4
Treat the bladder injury
Perform an exploratory laparotomy with surgical repair of the bladder dome
The diagnosis of an intraperitoneal bladder rupture necessitates emergent surgical closure to prevent chemical peritonitis and sepsis.
5
Stabilize the pelvic fracture
Perform open reduction and internal fixation of the pelvic ring
Definitive orthopedic stabilization is performed after life-threatening or visceral organ injuries have been surgically addressed.

Key Concept

Algorithm for suspected lower urinary tract trauma in the setting of pelvic fractures
Question 204Question →

Following an industrial accident where he was struck in the torso by a swinging steel pipe, a 48-year-old construction worker is transported to the trauma bay. Upon arrival, his blood pressure is 82/48 mm Hg, heart rate is 126/min, and respiratory rate is 22/min. Oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. The patient is lethargic but appropriately protects his airway. The trachea is midline, and breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Heart sounds are normal. The abdomen is distended and exhibits diffuse tenderness to palpation, with involuntary guarding. Anteroposterior and lateral compression of the pelvis does not elicit pain or instability. Peripheral pulses are weak and thready. Two large-bore intravenous lines are established, and isotonic fluid resuscitation is initiated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Focused assessment with sonography for trauma

Answer

Focused assessment with sonography for trauma
The patient is presenting with hemorrhagic shock (hypotension, tachycardia) following blunt torso trauma. According to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols, after securing the airway and breathing and initiating fluid resuscitation, the immediate next step in a hemodynamically unstable patient is to rapidly identify the source of bleeding. The Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) is a bedside ultrasound examination that can quickly detect free intraperitoneal fluid. Because the patient is unstable, confirming that the abdomen is the source of hemorrhage is critical to justifying an emergent exploratory laparotomy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's hemodynamic status and primary survey.
The patient is in class III/IV hemorrhagic shock (BP 82/48 mm Hg, HR 126/min) with an intact airway and clear lungs.
Determining hemodynamic stability dictates the diagnostic algorithm in blunt trauma.
2
Correlate physical exam findings with potential sources of bleeding.
The abdomen is distended and tender, pointing to intra-abdominal hemorrhage, while the pelvis is stable and chest is clear.
Identifying the most likely compartment of hemorrhage focuses the diagnostic workup.
3
Select the appropriate initial diagnostic modality for an unstable patient.
FAST exam is chosen to rapidly confirm the presence of intraperitoneal fluid before proceeding to the operating room.
Unstable patients cannot tolerate transport for advanced imaging; bedside evaluation is mandatory.

Key Concept

In hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma, a Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) is the next best step to rapidly identify intraperitoneal hemorrhage prior to emergency laparotomy.
Question 205Question →

Paramedics transport a 55-year-old male pedestrian to the trauma center after he was struck by a moving delivery van. He complains of excruciating pain in his lower abdomen and hips. On primary assessment, his airway is patent, and breath sounds are equal bilaterally. His blood pressure is 78/42 mm Hg, and his pulse is 135/min. Physical examination demonstrates marked bruising over the suprapubic region. Gentle lateral compression of the iliac crests reveals a mechanically unstable pelvic ring. A pelvic binder is immediately applied, and 1 liter of intravenous Lactated Ringer's solution is infused rapidly. A bedside ultrasound (FAST) examination reveals an anechoic stripe in the hepatorenal recess. Repeat vital signs show a blood pressure of 82/46 mm Hg and a pulse of 128/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Exploratory celiotomy

Answer

The most appropriate next step is exploratory celiotomy (laparotomy) to address the active intraperitoneal hemorrhage.
This patient presents with hemorrhagic shock due to blunt force trauma, characterized by hypotension and tachycardia that do not normalize after initial fluid resuscitation. He has two major potential sources of blood loss: an unstable pelvic fracture (which typically causes retroperitoneal venous or arterial bleeding) and intraperitoneal injury (evidenced by the positive FAST). According to ATLS guidelines, when a patient with a pelvic fracture is hemodynamically unstable and has a positive FAST, the intra-abdominal source is presumed to be the most immediate life threat. The most appropriate next step is exploratory celiotomy (laparotomy). If the patient remains unstable after intra-abdominal bleeding is controlled, pelvic angiography or preperitoneal packing can then be performed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status following initial resuscitation.
The patient remains hemodynamically unstable with a blood pressure of 82/46 mm Hg and a pulse of 128/min after receiving intravenous fluids.
Hemodynamic instability dictates the treatment algorithm, separating patients who can safely undergo imaging from those who require immediate intervention.
2
Evaluate the source of hemorrhagic shock using physical exam and bedside ultrasound.
The patient has two potential sources of major bleeding: a mechanically unstable pelvic fracture (retroperitoneal) and a positive FAST exam (intraperitoneal).
Identifying the primary compartment of bleeding determines which specialist and intervention is required first.
3
Apply the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) algorithm for multiple sources of hemorrhage.
The correct priority is to address the intraperitoneal bleeding via exploratory celiotomy.
In the setting of a pelvic fracture and hemodynamic instability, a positive FAST indicates that intraperitoneal hemorrhage is a major contributor to the patient's shock and must be surgically controlled before addressing the pelvic bleeding with angiography or preperitoneal packing.

Key Concept

In an unstable patient with a pelvic fracture, a positive FAST exam mandates immediate exploratory laparotomy (celiotomy) to control intraperitoneal hemorrhage before addressing the retroperitoneal pelvic bleeding.
Question 206Question →

Match each trauma patient presentation with the most appropriate immediate diagnostic test or therapeutic intervention.

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Items

32-year-old with blood at the urethral meatus and a high-riding prostate following a pelvic crush injury
27-year-old with gross hematuria and localized suprapubic pain after a direct blow to a distended bladder, with a normal urethral examination
45-year-old with flank pain, bruising over the 11th and 12th ribs, and microscopic hematuria, with stable vital signs
50-year-old with an unstable pelvic ring disruption, expanding pelvic hematoma, and persistent hypotension despite a negative FAST exam

Matches

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Answer

The presentations map to their respective interventions as follows: Patient 1 requires retrograde urethrography; Patient 2 requires CT cystography; Patient 3 requires CT of the abdomen and pelvis; Patient 4 requires pelvic angiography.
Each trauma presentation requires a specific diagnostic or therapeutic pathway based on ATLS guidelines. Urethral injury must be ruled out with a retrograde urethrogram before catheterization. Bladder injuries are evaluated with CT cystography. Renal injuries in stable patients require contrast CT. Unstable pelvic bleeding without intraperitoneal fluid requires angiography.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify signs of urethral injury in the first patient presentation.
Blood at the meatus and a high-riding prostate are noted.
These findings contraindicate urethral catheterization until retrograde urethrography confirms the urethra is intact.
2
Evaluate the second patient presentation for bladder trauma.
Gross hematuria and suprapubic pain with a normal urethral meatus indicate likely bladder rupture.
Because the urethra is normal, a catheter can safely be placed to perform CT cystography to locate the bladder tear.
3
Assess the third patient for renal trauma.
Lower rib fractures, flank bruising, and microscopic hematuria are identified in a hemodynamically stable patient.
Hemodynamic stability allows for transport to the CT scanner for an IV contrast study to accurately stage the renal injury.
4
Analyze the hemodynamically unstable patient with a pelvic fracture.
Hypotension despite fluid resuscitation and a negative FAST exam are noted.
A negative FAST points to retroperitoneal hemorrhage rather than intraperitoneal bleeding, making pelvic angiography with embolization the next best step for hemorrhage control.

Key Concept

Genitourinary and Pelvic Trauma Evaluation
Question 207Question →

A 4545-year-old male construction worker is brought to the emergency department after a high-voltage electrical injury. He accidentally touched a live power line and was thrown to the ground. The incident occurred exactly 3 hours3\text{ hours} prior to his arrival at the trauma center. No intravenous fluids were administered during transport. The patient weighs 90 kg90\text{ kg}. On physical examination, there are deep, full-thickness burns covering his entire anterior torso and his entire right upper extremity. The remainder of his skin is unaffected. A Foley catheter is placed, yielding dark red urine. According to the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) guidelines, at what rate (in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}) should intravenous lactated Ringer solution be administered over the remainder of the first 8-hour post-injury window?

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Answer: 972

Answer

972 mL/hr
The correct calculation appropriately utilizes the ATLS multiplier for electrical burns (4 mL/kg/%TBSA), divides the 24-hour total in half for the first 8-hour window, and divides that half strictly by the remaining 5 hours since the injury occurred 3 hours prior.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the burned body surface area using the Rule of Nines
27% TBSA
Accurate TBSA is required for the fluid resuscitation formula. Anterior torso = 18%, right upper extremity = 9%.
2
Select the appropriate ATLS fluid multiplier for electrical injuries
4 mL/kg/%TBSA
High-voltage electrical burns with suspected myoglobinuria require higher fluid volumes (4 mL) to flush the kidneys compared to standard thermal burns (2 mL).
3
Calculate the total 24-hour fluid volume
9,720 mL
4 mL × 90 kg × 27% = 9,720 mL total for the first 24 hours.
4
Determine the fluid volume for the first 8-hour window
4,860 mL
Standard ATLS guidelines dictate that 50% of the calculated 24-hour fluid volume is given in the first 8 hours post-injury.
5
Calculate the infusion rate over the remaining hours of the first window
972 mL/hr
Because 3 hours have already elapsed since the injury, the 4,860 mL must be infused over the remaining 5 hours (4,860 / 5).

Key Concept

Fluid resuscitation for electrical burns with myoglobinuria utilizes 4 mL/kg/%TBSA, with half administered over the first 8 hours from the time of injury.
Question 208Question →

A 24-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed collision while snowboarding, during which he struck a tree. On arrival, he is confused and complains of severe abdominal pain. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), blood pressure is 82/45 mmHg, pulse is 134/min, and respirations are 24/min. Pulse oximetry is 96% on room air. Primary survey reveals a patent airway and clear breath sounds bilaterally. Cardiac auscultation shows a rapid, regular rhythm with no murmurs. The abdomen is distended with diffuse tenderness, guarding, and rebound tenderness. Examination of the pelvis reveals stability to anteroposterior and lateral compression. Intravenous access is established, and the patient receives 1 L of warmed lactated Ringer solution, after which his blood pressure is 86/48 mmHg and pulse is 128/min. A bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) demonstrates a significant amount of anechoic fluid in the splenorenal and hepatorenal recesses. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Exploratory laparotomy
The correct management for this patient is immediate surgical exploration. The patient has sustained blunt abdominal trauma (BAT) and is in hemorrhagic shock, evidenced by persistent hypotension and tachycardia despite an initial fluid challenge. In the setting of BAT, a bedside ultrasound (FAST) is used to rapidly identify free intraperitoneal fluid (blood). When a patient is hemodynamically unstable and has a positive FAST examination, the diagnosis of life-threatening intra-abdominal hemorrhage is established. The absolute next best step is an emergency exploratory laparotomy to achieve surgical source control. Any delay for further diagnostic testing increases mortality.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess hemodynamic status
The patient remains hypotensive (86/48 mmHg) and tachycardic (128/min) despite initial crystalloid resuscitation.
Hemodynamic instability dictates the urgency and type of subsequent interventions in trauma protocols.
2
Evaluate the mechanism of injury and primary survey findings
Blunt abdominal trauma with a stable pelvis and no signs of intrathoracic hemorrhage or tension pneumothorax.
Localizes the likely source of hemorrhagic shock to the abdominal cavity.
3
Interpret the bedside ultrasound (FAST) results
Positive for anechoic fluid in the splenorenal and hepatorenal recesses, indicating hemoperitoneum.
Confirms the abdomen as the source of life-threatening internal hemorrhage.
4
Determine the definitive management
Immediate transfer to the operating room for surgical exploration.
A hemodynamically unstable patient with confirmed intraperitoneal bleeding requires emergency surgical source control without further diagnostic delay.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST examination require immediate exploratory laparotomy.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 209Question →

A 3434-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department via helicopter after being thrown from a horse and subsequently trampled. She complains of severe right flank and abdominal pain. Her medical history is unremarkable. On arrival, her temperature is 36.6∘C36.6^\circ\text{C}, blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg85/50\text{ mmHg}, heart rate is 126/min126\text{/min}, and respiratory rate is 24/min24\text{/min}. She is pale and diaphoretic. Primary survey reveals a patent airway and clear, equal breath sounds bilaterally. There is significant ecchymosis and guarding over the right upper quadrant and right flank. A Foley catheter is placed and returns frankly bloody urine. Intravenous access is established, and the patient is resuscitated with 1 L1\text{ L} of warmed lactated Ringer solution and 11 unit of uncrossmatched packed red blood cells. Following the initial resuscitation, her blood pressure improves to 105/65 mmHg105/65\text{ mmHg} but rapidly drops back to 78/45 mmHg78/45\text{ mmHg} within ten minutes. A bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) reveals free fluid in the hepatorenal recess (Morison pouch). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Exploratory laparotomy
The most appropriate next step for a hemodynamically unstable patient with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) is immediate exploratory laparotomy. This patient is a 'transient responder' (exhibiting an initial improvement in blood pressure followed by rapid, recurrent hypotension), which is a cardinal sign of ongoing, active hemorrhage. The positive FAST confirms the peritoneal cavity as the source of bleeding. Although the gross hematuria strongly suggests a concomitant genitourinary injury (e.g., renal laceration), definitive hemorrhage control takes absolute priority. The patient must be taken directly to the operating room; the renal injury can be assessed and managed directly during the laparotomy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status and response to initial resuscitation.
The patient exhibits a transient response to fluids and blood (initial improvement followed by recurrent hypotension), which categorizes her as hemodynamically unstable with ongoing active hemorrhage.
Identifying hemodynamic instability dictates whether the trauma algorithm proceeds to advanced imaging (CT) or immediate definitive intervention.
2
Identify the primary source of the life-threatening hemorrhage.
The FAST examination demonstrates free fluid in the hepatorenal recess, confirming the peritoneal cavity as the source of bleeding.
In blunt trauma, the source of bleeding dictates the specific intervention (e.g., laparotomy for abdomen, thoracotomy for chest, binder/angiography for pelvis).
3
Determine the definitive management based on stability and bleeding source.
Immediate exploratory laparotomy is indicated.
An unstable patient with confirmed intraperitoneal bleeding must go directly to the operating room, bypassing secondary imaging, regardless of other suspected injuries like genitourinary trauma.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST examination require immediate exploratory laparotomy. Concomitant signs of specific organ injury (such as gross hematuria) must not delay definitive hemorrhage control for advanced imaging.
Question 210Question →

A 24-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a severe hyperextension injury to his right knee sustained during a rugby match. He is in severe pain. Physical examination reveals gross deformity of the right knee with a prominent medial femoral condyle. The right foot is slightly cool, and the right dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are palpable but noticeably weaker than those on the left. Capillary refill is 3 seconds in the right toes. Motor and sensory functions in the right foot are intact. Arrange the following steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence for evaluating and managing this patient's limb.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Closed reduction of the right knee joint, followed by Measurement of the ankle-brachial index (ABI), then Computed tomography (CT) angiography of the right lower extremity, and finally Operative vascular repair.
The proper sequence for managing a patient with a knee dislocation and soft signs of vascular injury (such as diminished, asymmetric pulses) begins with immediate closed reduction to relieve pressure on the popliteal artery. Following reduction, the vascular status must be objectively quantified using the ankle-brachial index (ABI). An ABI less than 0.9 indicates impaired perfusion and warrants advanced imaging with CT angiography to localize the injury. Finally, if CT angiography confirms an arterial injury, operative vascular repair is required.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Perform immediate closed reduction of the knee joint.
Relieves mechanical tension on the popliteal artery and potentially restores distal blood flow.
Prolonged ischemia leads to irreversible neuromuscular damage; reduction is the most critical first intervention and should not be delayed by imaging.
2
Measure the ankle-brachial index (ABI).
Provides an objective, quantifiable assessment of distal perfusion.
Soft signs of vascular injury (such as asymmetric pulses or delayed capillary refill) require objective quantification. An ABI less than 0.9 is highly sensitive for significant arterial injury.
3
Obtain CT angiography of the lower extremity.
Identifies the exact location and nature of the arterial injury, such as an intimal flap, pseudoaneurysm, or occlusion.
Advanced imaging is required for operative planning when the ABI is abnormal but hard signs of ischemia (e.g., absent pulses, pulsatile bleeding) are absent.
4
Perform operative vascular repair.
Definitively restores blood flow to the distal extremity.
Confirmed popliteal artery injuries require surgical intervention, such as primary repair or a reverse saphenous vein graft.

Key Concept

Algorithm for evaluating and managing knee dislocation with suspected popliteal artery injury (soft signs of vascular compromise).
Question 211Question →

Evaluate the following clinical scenarios of trauma patients and pair each presentation with the single most appropriate next step in management.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 29-year-old man involved in a high-speed collision. Blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg. Focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) shows free fluid in the hepatorenal recess.
A 38-year-old woman evaluated after a bicycle crash. Blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg. FAST examination reveals a small amount of fluid in the splenorenal recess.
A 22-year-old man with a stab wound to the left anterior neck. He presents with an expanding, pulsatile hematoma and audible stridor.
A 55-year-old man who fell from a roof. Blood pressure is 86/52 mm Hg. FAST is negative, pelvis is stable, and ECG reveals a new-onset right bundle branch block.

Matches

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Answer

The hemodynamically unstable patient with a positive FAST requires exploratory laparotomy. The stable patient with a positive FAST requires a CT scan. The patient with penetrating neck trauma and hard signs requires operative neck exploration. The unstable patient with negative FAST and new ECG changes requires transthoracic echocardiography.
Trauma management protocols strictly delineate interventions based on hemodynamic stability and the presence of 'hard signs' of injury. Unstable patients with intra-abdominal fluid or patients with expanding neck hematomas require immediate surgery. Stable patients can undergo CT imaging, while unexplained shock with ECG changes warrants echocardiography.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the hemodynamic status of the patient in each scenario.
Two patients are hemodynamically unstable (hypotensive), one is stable, and one has hard signs of vascular/airway injury.
Hemodynamic stability is the primary decision point in trauma algorithms, determining whether the patient can safely undergo imaging or must go directly to the operating room.
2
Determine the significance of the FAST exam results based on stability.
The unstable patient with a positive FAST goes to laparotomy. The stable patient with a positive FAST can safely undergo CT scanning.
A positive FAST in an unstable patient indicates active intra-abdominal hemorrhage that is the likely cause of shock. In a stable patient, it merely indicates the presence of fluid, which could be from a minor solid organ laceration that can be managed nonoperatively.
3
Identify hard signs of penetrating neck trauma.
The patient with a neck stab wound has an expanding hematoma and stridor (hard signs), dictating immediate operative exploration.
Hard signs of aerodigestive or vascular injury require immediate surgical intervention to secure the airway and control bleeding, bypassing further diagnostic workup.
4
Evaluate the cause of shock in the patient with a negative FAST and stable pelvis.
The presence of a new right bundle branch block suggests blunt cardiac injury, which is evaluated with an echocardiogram.
When hemorrhage has been ruled out in an unstable blunt trauma patient, cardiogenic shock (due to myocardial contusion) must be considered and investigated with echocardiography.

Key Concept

Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) algorithms dictate that hemodynamically unstable patients with identified bleeding or hard signs of injury require immediate surgical intervention, while stable patients should undergo detailed imaging to guide management.
Question 212Question →

A 42-year-old male roofing contractor arrives at the trauma center via ambulance after plunging approximately 6 meters (20 feet) off a residential roof. On arrival, he is pale and diaphoretic. His heart rate is 135/min, blood pressure is 76/40 mmHg, respiratory rate is 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. The trachea is midline, and breath sounds are clear and symmetric bilaterally. The pelvis is mechanically stable to anteroposterior and lateral compression. The abdomen is tense and exhibits involuntary guarding. Large-bore intravenous access is secured, and a bolus of warmed isotonic fluids is administered without a significant change in his hemodynamic parameters. Bedside ultrasonography demonstrates an anechoic fluid collection separating the liver and the right kidney. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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Answer: Immediate transfer to the operating room for celiotomy

Answer

The most appropriate next step is immediate transfer to the operating room for celiotomy (surgical exploration).
The patient is presenting with class III/IV hemorrhagic shock following blunt trauma. Despite initial fluid resuscitation, he remains profoundly hypotensive and tachycardic, defining him as hemodynamically unstable. The bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) exam demonstrates free fluid in the hepatorenal recess (Morison's pouch), confirming intraperitoneal hemorrhage. The standard of care for a hemodynamically unstable patient with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST exam is immediate transfer to the operating room for an exploratory celiotomy (laparotomy) to achieve definitive hemorrhage control.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status and response to initial resuscitation.
The patient remains hypotensive (76/40 mmHg) and tachycardic (135/min) despite isotonic fluid administration, indicating refractory hemorrhagic shock.
Hemodynamic stability determines the safety of diagnostic imaging versus the need for immediate surgical intervention.
2
Evaluate the results of the bedside ultrasonography (FAST exam).
An anechoic collection is seen between the liver and right kidney (Morison's pouch), representing free intraperitoneal fluid (blood).
The FAST exam rapidly identifies the peritoneal cavity as the source of life-threatening hemorrhage in blunt trauma.
3
Determine the definitive management for an unstable patient with confirmed intraperitoneal bleeding.
The patient requires an emergent exploratory celiotomy (laparotomy).
Surgical exploration is necessary to identify the injured organ(s) and rapidly control the bleeding.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST exam require immediate exploratory laparotomy.
Question 213Question →

A 50-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance exactly 2 hours after being caught in a large brush fire. His estimated weight is 75 kg75 \text{ kg}. On physical examination, the patient is awake and speaking in full sentences without hoarseness. Airway is patent. He has deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns involving his entire anterior trunk, his entire right arm, and the anterior surface of his left leg. The remainder of his body surface is unaffected. A large-bore peripheral intravenous line is established. Based on the most current Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) guidelines for adult thermal burns, what is the target intravenous fluid administration rate for the remainder of the first 8 hours post-injury?

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Answer: 450

Answer

450
Based on the ATLS 10th edition update, the initial fluid resuscitation for adults with thermal burns is calculated using 2 mL×weight (kg)×%TBSA2 \text{ mL} \times \text{weight (kg)} \times \text{\%TBSA}. For a 75 kg75 \text{ kg} man with 36%36\% TBSA burns, this equals 5400 mL5400 \text{ mL} for the first 24 hours. Half of this volume (2700 mL2700 \text{ mL}) must be given in the first 8 hours after the burn occurred. Because the patient arrived 2 hours post-injury, this 2700 mL2700 \text{ mL} must be infused over the remaining 6 hours, resulting in a rate of 450 mL/hr450 \text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the total percentage of burned surface area (%TBSA).
Anterior trunk = 18%, Entire right arm = 9%, Anterior left leg = 9%. Total = 18% + 9% + 9% = 36% TBSA.
The Rule of Nines dictates the body is divided into areas representing 9% (or multiples of 9%) to estimate burn extent.
2
Calculate the total fluid requirement for the first 24 hours.
2 mL×75 kg×36=5400 mL2 \text{ mL} \times 75 \text{ kg} \times 36 = 5400 \text{ mL} total.
Current ATLS guidelines recommend 2 mL/kg/%TBSA2 \text{ mL/kg/\%TBSA} for adult thermal burns to minimize the risk of over-resuscitation and compartment syndrome.
3
Determine the fluid volume required for the first 8 hours.
5400 mL/2=2700 mL5400 \text{ mL} / 2 = 2700 \text{ mL}.
Half of the total 24-hour fluid requirement must be given within the first 8 hours from the time of injury.
4
Calculate the remaining time for the first 8-hour window.
8 hours−2 hours elapsed=6 hours remaining8 \text{ hours} - 2 \text{ hours elapsed} = 6 \text{ hours remaining}.
The 8-hour window begins at the time of the injury, not the time of arrival at the hospital.
5
Determine the hourly intravenous fluid rate.
2700 mL/6 hours=450 mL/hr2700 \text{ mL} / 6 \text{ hours} = 450 \text{ mL/hr}.
This steady rate ensures the patient receives the target 2700 mL over the correct physiological timeframe.

Key Concept

Fluid resuscitation in adult thermal burns (ATLS 10th Edition guidelines)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 214Question →

A 27-year-old male pedestrian is brought to the emergency department after being struck by a motor vehicle. He complains of severe pelvic and lower abdominal pain. On arrival, his temperature is 36.8∘C36.8^\circ\text{C} (98.2∘F98.2^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg, heart rate is 132/min, and respiratory rate is 22/min. Oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. The patient's airway is patent, and breath sounds are equal bilaterally. A focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) exam is negative for intraperitoneal fluid. Chest radiography reveals no abnormalities. Pelvic radiography demonstrates widening of the pubic symphysis and sacroiliac joints. An external pelvic binder is applied, and an institutional massive transfusion protocol is initiated. Reassessment 15 minutes later shows a blood pressure of 82/52 mmHg and a heart rate of 128/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Pelvic angiography with embolization

Answer

Pelvic angiography with embolization is the most appropriate next step in management.
The correct answer is pelvic angiography with embolization. This patient presents with hemorrhagic shock secondary to an open-book pelvic fracture. In pelvic trauma, life-threatening hemorrhage typically originates from the presacral venous plexus or branches of the internal iliac artery. Initial management requires mechanical stabilization with a pelvic binder to reduce pelvic volume and promote tamponade, alongside blood product resuscitation. If the patient remains hemodynamically unstable and the FAST exam is negative (ruling out major intraperitoneal bleeding), the next most appropriate step is definitive hemorrhage control. This is achieved via pelvic angiography with embolization (or alternatively, preperitoneal pelvic packing), which specifically targets the retroperitoneal arterial bleeding source without disrupting the protective retroperitoneal tamponade effect.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status and primary survey.
The patient is in hemorrhagic shock (BP 80/50 mmHg, HR 132/min) with a patent airway and normal breathing.
Identifying hemodynamic instability dictates whether the diagnostic pathway leans toward immediate operative intervention versus advanced imaging.
2
Evaluate the potential sources of hemorrhage based on initial bedside adjuncts.
FAST is negative (no intraperitoneal fluid), and chest x-ray is clear, but pelvic x-ray shows an open-book fracture.
This effectively isolates the pelvis and retroperitoneum as the primary source of life-threatening bleeding.
3
Determine the next step after initial stabilization efforts (pelvic binder and massive transfusion) have proven insufficient.
The patient remains hemodynamically unstable, requiring definitive hemorrhage control via pelvic angiography with embolization or preperitoneal packing.
A negative FAST precludes exploratory laparotomy, and persistent hemodynamic instability absolutely precludes a CT scan.

Key Concept

Management algorithm for pelvic trauma with persistent hemodynamic instability
Question 215Question →

Evaluate the following unique presentations of thermal and chemical injuries. Match each distinct clinical presentation with the most appropriate immediate next step in management.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

An industrial worker with a rigid, pale, and leathery burn completely encircling the right forearm, presenting with diminished distal radial pulses and increasing hand paresthesia.
A patient rescued from a closed-space structural fire presenting with singed nasal hairs, a hoarse voice, and carbonaceous sputum, currently maintaining 97% oxygen saturation on room air.
A lineman who sustained a high-voltage electrical shock from a utility pole, presenting with charred entry and exit wounds on the extremities, severe muscle rigidity, and grossly reddish-brown urine.
A laboratory technician who accidentally splashed a concentrated alkaline cleaning solution onto their bare forearms, reporting deep, progressively worsening tissue pain.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The clinical presentations match their corresponding interventions based on the primary limb- or life-threatening mechanism of each specific injury: compartment syndrome requires escharotomy, impending airway edema requires intubation, rhabdomyolysis requires high-volume hydration, and alkaline liquefactive necrosis requires immediate massive irrigation.
Each specific burn type carries a predictable and uniquely dangerous complication. Recognizing the hallmark signs (leathery circumferential burn, soot in airway, myoglobinuria, and chemical exposure) allows the clinician to preemptively intervene before irreversible tissue loss, airway obstruction, or renal failure occurs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the circumferential extremity burn presentation.
Identified signs of vascular compromise (diminished pulses, paresthesia) secondary to an inelastic eschar.
This confirms impending burn-induced compartment syndrome, dictating immediate surgical decompression via escharotomy.
2
Analyze the closed-space structural fire presentation.
Identified hard signs of inhalation injury (hoarseness, singed hairs) despite currently stable oxygenation.
Thermal injury to the upper airway causes progressive, unpredictable edema. Securing the airway early prevents catastrophic loss of the airway.
3
Analyze the high-voltage electrical shock presentation.
Identified severe muscle injury and myoglobinuria (reddish-brown urine).
Myoglobin is nephrotoxic. The specific management goal for rhabdomyolysis in electrical burns is a higher-than-normal urine output (75-100 mL/hr) to flush the renal tubules.
4
Analyze the alkaline chemical burn presentation.
Identified a highly corrosive tissue exposure causing liquefactive necrosis.
Unlike thermal burns, chemical burns continue to destroy tissue as long as the agent is present. Immediate, high-volume irrigation is the definitive first step.

Key Concept

Pathophysiology and targeted acute management of specialized burn injuries (circumferential thermal, inhalational, high-voltage electrical, and alkaline chemical).
Question 216Question →

For each of the described victims of thoracic injury, select the most critical diagnostic or therapeutic intervention to optimize their survival or establish a definitive diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 45-year-old driver in a high-speed frontal collision has a blood pressure of 115/75 mm Hg. A portable radiograph shows a widened mediastinum, left apical capping, and depression of the left mainstem bronchus.
A 28-year-old man sustains a single gunshot wound to the right anterior chest. During primary survey in the trauma bay, he acutely loses his pulse and goes into cardiac arrest.
A 22-year-old woman is brought in with a stab wound just left of the sternum in the fourth intercostal space. Her blood pressure is 75/40 mm Hg. Bedside ultrasound demonstrates a significant pericardial effusion.
A 35-year-old man falls from a 4-meter height, sustaining right-sided rib fractures. Despite the placement of a well-positioned right thoracostomy tube, there is a large, continuous air leak in the water seal chamber and failure of lung re-expansion.

Matches

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Answer

The clinical presentations map to their respective optimal interventions based on hemodynamic status and specific injury patterns: rapid deceleration with widened mediastinum requires CT angiography; penetrating chest trauma with witnessed arrest requires emergency department thoracotomy; penetrating chest trauma in severe shock with confirmed tamponade requires urgent operative sternotomy; and a continuous air leak despite chest tube placement requires bronchoscopy.
Each matching pair accurately applies Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) algorithms for thoracic trauma. Hemodynamically stable patients with signs of blunt aortic injury need CT angiography. Witnessed arrest in penetrating chest trauma is the classic indication for an ED resuscitative thoracotomy. Unstable patients with tamponade who still have a pulse need to bypass ED thoracotomy for controlled exploration in the operating room. Tracheobronchial tears, marked by persistent air leaks, are definitively diagnosed via bronchoscopy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze hemodynamic stability and arrest status.
Identified that the blunt trauma patient and the patient with the air leak are stable; the stab wound patient is in severe shock; the gunshot wound patient has suffered witnessed cardiac arrest.
Hemodynamic status dictates whether the patient can undergo advanced imaging (stable) or requires immediate operative/resuscitative intervention (unstable/arrest).
2
Differentiate penetrating thoracic trauma management based on pulse status.
Determined that witnessed arrest mandates emergency department resuscitative thoracotomy, whereas presence of a pulse despite profound hypotension mandates immediate transfer to the operating room.
Emergency department thoracotomy carries high morbidity and is strictly reserved for those in extremis (arrest), as controlled operative exploration yields better outcomes for those who still have a pulse.
3
Correlate specific blunt thoracic findings with diagnostic modalities.
Matched widened mediastinum with CT angiography to rule out blunt aortic injury, and massive continuous air leak with bronchoscopy to rule out tracheobronchial tearing.
Specific radiographic and clinical signs of blunt chest trauma dictate targeted definitive diagnostics to prevent catastrophic complications.

Key Concept

Advanced management algorithms for severe blunt and penetrating thoracic trauma, specifically distinguishing indications for emergency department thoracotomy versus operative intervention.
Question 217Question →

Emergency medical services bring a 3232-year-old gravid patient (estimated 3232 weeks gestation) to the trauma bay following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Paramedics report she was a restrained passenger wearing a lap belt without a shoulder strap. Upon arrival, the patient is immobilized on a backboard with a left lateral tilt. She is pale, diaphoretic, and confused. Vital signs are temperature 36.5∘C36.5^\circ\text{C} (97.7∘F97.7^\circ\text{F}), pulse 138/min138/\text{min}, respirations 28/min28/\text{min}, and blood pressure 78/42 mm Hg78/42\text{ mm Hg}. Physical examination reveals a protuberant abdomen that is rigid, with diffuse rebound tenderness and a transverse ecchymosis across the lower abdomen. Fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a baseline of 105/min105/\text{min} with absent variability and recurrent late decelerations. Despite the rapid intravenous infusion of 2 L2\text{ L} of warmed crystalloids and 2 units2\text{ units} of uncrossmatched type O-negative blood, her blood pressure remains 82/45 mm Hg82/45\text{ mm Hg}. A bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) shows a large volume of anechoic fluid in the hepatorenal and splenorenal recesses. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Urgent exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Urgent exploratory laparotomy
The correct intervention is urgent exploratory laparotomy. This patient is presenting with hemorrhagic shock secondary to blunt abdominal trauma, as evidenced by persistent hypotension despite aggressive fluid and blood product resuscitation. The bedside FAST examination is positive, indicating massive intraperitoneal hemorrhage. In any trauma patient, hemodynamic instability coupled with a positive FAST dictates immediate surgical source control. Although this patient is pregnant and the fetus is exhibiting signs of distress (recurrent late decelerations, absent variability), maternal survival is the absolute priority. The most effective way to resuscitate the fetus is to rapidly stabilize the mother by controlling the hemorrhage via laparotomy. A concurrent cesarean delivery may be performed in the operating room once maternal hemorrhage is addressed, but transferring the patient for an exploratory laparotomy is the critical next step.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's hemodynamic status and trauma mechanism.
The patient is in severe hemorrhagic shock (blood pressure 82/45 mm Hg82/45\text{ mm Hg}, pulse 138/min138/\text{min}) following blunt abdominal trauma (seatbelt injury), unresponsive to initial fluid and blood resuscitation.
Determining hemodynamic stability is the primary decision point in the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) algorithm.
2
Interpret the diagnostic imaging.
The FAST examination reveals free anechoic fluid in the abdomen.
A positive FAST in the setting of blunt trauma confirms massive intraperitoneal hemorrhage as the source of shock.
3
Integrate the obstetric findings with maternal trauma priorities.
Although there is fetal distress (bradycardia, late decelerations), maternal stabilization via laparotomy takes absolute precedence.
Fetal survival is entirely dependent on maternal perfusion. The most effective fetal resuscitation is aggressive maternal resuscitation and surgical hemorrhage control.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable trauma patients with a positive FAST examination require immediate exploratory laparotomy, and maternal stabilization always takes precedence over fetal interventions in gravid trauma patients.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 218Question →

A 21-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a direct blow to the left side of his abdomen during a rugby match. On presentation, he complains of severe left upper quadrant pain that radiates to his left shoulder. Initial vital signs show a blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg, heart rate of 92/min, and respiratory rate of 18/min. Bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) reveals a moderate amount of free fluid in the splenorenal recess. Two large-bore peripheral intravenous lines are established, and blood is drawn for laboratory studies. Ten minutes later, the patient becomes agitated, pale, and diaphoretic. Repeat vital signs show a blood pressure of 72/38 mmHg and a heart rate of 144/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Exploratory laparotomy is the most appropriate next step for a hemodynamically unstable patient with a positive FAST exam.
The correct response is exploratory laparotomy. This patient sustained blunt abdominal trauma and presents with a positive FAST exam and subsequent hemodynamic collapse. The combination of shock (blood pressure 72/38 mmHg, heart rate 144/min) and confirmed intra-abdominal fluid (hemoperitoneum) dictates immediate transport to the operating room for surgical exploration to arrest the bleeding. Any delay for further diagnostics is contraindicated.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's initial mechanism of injury and clinical presentation.
The patient experienced blunt abdominal trauma and initially presented hemodynamically stable with a positive FAST exam showing intra-abdominal fluid (likely blood from a splenic injury).
Establishing the initial baseline is crucial for trauma evaluation.
2
Evaluate the patient's sudden change in clinical status.
The patient rapidly developed severe hypotension (72/38 mmHg) and tachycardia (144/min), indicating acute hemorrhagic shock and hemodynamic instability.
Dynamic changes in vital signs dictate the immediate treatment pathway in the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) algorithm.
3
Apply the blunt abdominal trauma algorithm for an unstable patient.
A hemodynamically unstable patient with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST exam requires immediate exploratory laparotomy.
Definitive surgical hemostasis must be achieved without delay; further diagnostic imaging is contraindicated.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST exam must be taken immediately for exploratory laparotomy.
Question 219Question →

A 41-year-old female warehouse employee is brought to the emergency department after being struck by a reversing forklift and pinned against a concrete wall. She complains of diffuse abdominal pain and dizziness.

Vital signs upon arrival are temperature 36.4∘C36.4^\circ\text{C} (97.5∘F97.5^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure 78/45 mmHg78/45\text{ mmHg}, heart rate 132/min132/\text{min}, and respiratory rate 22/min22/\text{min}.

Primary survey reveals a patent airway, and breath sounds are equal bilaterally. Her neck veins are flat. The pelvis demonstrates no mechanical instability to gentle compression. A focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) demonstrates a substantial anechoic stripe in Morison's pouch.

She immediately receives a transfusion of uncrossmatched type O-negative packed red blood cells. Following this initial resuscitation, her blood pressure rises to 92/55 mmHg92/55\text{ mmHg} and her heart rate slows to 115/min115/\text{min}. The physician notes that her peripheral pulses remain weak and her capillary refill time is delayed.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Immediate transfer to the operating room for celiotomy

Answer

Immediate transfer to the operating room for celiotomy
The correct answer is immediate transfer to the operating room for celiotomy. This patient has sustained blunt abdominal trauma and presents with severe hemorrhagic shock. Although her blood pressure slightly improved following an initial blood transfusion, she remains tachycardic with weak peripheral pulses and delayed capillary refill. This clinical picture characterizes her as a 'transient responder.' According to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols, a hemodynamically unstable patient or a transient responder with a positive Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) exam requires emergent exploratory laparotomy (celiotomy) to identify and control the source of intra-abdominal hemorrhage. Any delay for further imaging or diagnostic procedures is contraindicated and severely increases the risk of mortality.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's hemodynamic status.
The patient initially presented with profound hypotension and tachycardia. After a blood transfusion, her vital signs improved only marginally, with persistent signs of hypoperfusion (weak pulses, delayed capillary refill).
Determining precise hemodynamic stability, including identifying 'transient responders', is the most critical branching point in the trauma evaluation algorithm.
2
Interpret the adjunct primary survey findings.
The FAST examination is positive for free fluid in Morison's pouch (the hepatorenal recess).
A positive FAST in the context of blunt abdominal trauma indicates hemoperitoneum as the likely source of shock.
3
Determine the definitive management step.
A hemodynamically unstable patient, or a transient responder, with a positive FAST requires immediate surgical exploration.
Diagnostic delays in unstable patients increase mortality; immediate source control via celiotomy is absolutely mandated.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients (including transient responders) with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST require immediate exploratory laparotomy (celiotomy).
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 220Question →

A 3333-year-old construction worker is brought to the emergency department after a 2020-foot fall from a scaffold. On arrival, he is lethargic and diaphoretic. His temperature is 36.5∘C36.5^\circ\text{C} (97.7∘F97.7^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure is 78/45 mm Hg78/45\text{ mm Hg}, and pulse is 132/min132\text{/min}. Oxygen saturation is 96%96\% on room air. Primary survey reveals a patent airway and bilaterally equal breath sounds. The abdomen is soft, non-distended, and without guarding. Inspection of the pelvis shows a scrotal hematoma and blood at the urethral meatus. Gentle lateral compression of the iliac crests elicits crepitus and abnormal mobility. A bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) shows no free fluid in the peritoneal cavity or pericardial sac. An anteroposterior pelvic radiograph reveals a 4.5-cm4.5\text{-cm} pubic symphysis diastasis and widening of the left sacroiliac joint. Intravenous access is established, and aggressive crystalloid resuscitation is initiated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Application of a noninvasive pelvic binder

Answer

Application of a noninvasive pelvic binder is the most appropriate next step to mechanically stabilize the fracture and promote retroperitoneal tamponade.
The most appropriate next step in management is the application of a noninvasive pelvic binder. This patient is in profound hypovolemic shock following a high-energy fall, and his clinical examination and radiographs are consistent with an 'open book' pelvic fracture (anteroposterior compression injury). These fractures tear the anterior sacroiliac ligaments and disrupt the presacral venous plexus and branches of the internal iliac artery, leading to massive retroperitoneal hemorrhage. The negative FAST scan indicates that the bleeding is not intraperitoneal. In a hemodynamically unstable patient with a severe pelvic ring disruption, immediate application of a pelvic binder (centered over the greater trochanters) is indicated. This intervention reduces pelvic volume, apposes the fracture ends, and promotes the tamponade of venous bleeding, buying crucial time for definitive procedures such as preperitoneal packing or angiographic embolization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status and mechanism of injury.
The patient is in profound hypovolemic shock (blood pressure 78/45 mm Hg78/45\text{ mm Hg}, pulse 132/min132\text{/min}) following a high-energy fall.
Identifying hemodynamic instability is the first step in trauma management, dictating immediate interventions for life-threatening hemorrhage.
2
Evaluate the source of bleeding using the primary survey and adjuncts.
The FAST scan is negative, ruling out major intraperitoneal or pericardial bleeding. The pelvic radiograph confirms a severe 'open book' pelvic fracture.
A negative FAST in a hypotensive trauma patient directs attention to other major sources of blood loss, particularly the retroperitoneum associated with the pelvic fracture.
3
Determine the most appropriate immediate intervention to control the hemorrhage.
Application of a noninvasive pelvic binder is selected to address the mechanical source of the bleeding.
A pelvic binder reduces the pelvic volume, apposes the fracture ends, and promotes the tamponade of life-threatening retroperitoneal venous bleeding before considering definitive management.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with severe pelvic fractures and a negative FAST exam require immediate application of a pelvic binder to tamponade retroperitoneal bleeding.
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