Trauma and Burns

283 questions

Question 61Question →

A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being rescued from a closed-space house fire. He is coughing up carbonaceous sputum and has a hoarse voice. He has sustained deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns covering his entire anterior trunk and bilateral upper extremities. According to standard trauma and burn management principles, arrange the following clinical interventions in the most appropriate chronological sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Endotracheal intubation, establishment of intravenous access, calculation of TBSA, initiation of formula-based fluid resuscitation, and placement of a urinary catheter.
The management of major burns follows a strict protocol based on Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) principles. This patient presents with classic signs of inhalational injury (closed-space fire, hoarseness, carbonaceous sputum), making prophylactic endotracheal intubation the absolute first priority to prevent catastrophic airway loss from impending edema. Once the airway is secured, circulation is addressed by establishing large-bore intravenous access. With access secured, the physician conducts a secondary survey to estimate the total body surface area (TBSA) burned, typically using the rule of nines. This calculation is essential to determine the required 24-hour fluid volume using a standard burn formula (e.g., Parkland formula). Once the initial fluid rate is established and initiated, a urinary catheter is placed. Hourly urine output is the most accurate non-invasive marker of adequate end-organ perfusion and allows clinicians to titrate the fluid rate up or down throughout the resuscitation period.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Secure the airway.
Perform rapid sequence endotracheal intubation.
Signs of inhalational injury (carbonaceous sputum, hoarseness) mandate immediate intubation before progressive airway edema makes it impossible.
2
Obtain vascular access.
Establish large-bore intravenous access.
Intravenous access is necessary to begin circulatory support, following the standard 'Airway before Circulation' trauma priority.
3
Assess the extent of injury.
Determine the total body surface area (TBSA) burned.
An accurate TBSA calculation (using the rule of nines) is required to determine the required fluid volume for resuscitation.
4
Start fluid resuscitation.
Initiate targeted crystalloid fluid resuscitation.
Using a standardized formula (like the Parkland formula), lactated Ringer solution is administered to prevent hypovolemic burn shock.
5
Monitor end-organ perfusion.
Insert a urinary catheter to monitor hourly urine output.
Hourly urine output is the gold standard for titrating the ongoing fluid resuscitation rate.

Key Concept

The acute management of severe burns prioritizes securing the airway in suspected inhalational injury, followed by establishing IV access, calculating the affected Total Body Surface Area (TBSA), calculating fluid requirements (Parkland formula), and monitoring resuscitation efficacy via urine output.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 62Question →

A 38-year-old male pedestrian is brought to the emergency department after being struck by a delivery truck at highway speeds. Upon arrival, he has agonal respirations. Physical examination reveals massive midfacial crush injuries with active oropharyngeal hemorrhage. His vital signs are temperature 35.5°C (95.9°F), blood pressure 68/35 mmHg, pulse 142/min, and respiratory rate 6/min. There are absent breath sounds over the right hemithorax and pronounced jugular venous distention. The pelvis is mechanically unstable on manual compression, and a rapidly expanding scrotal hematoma is noted. Based on Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols, arrange the following management steps in the most appropriate chronological order.

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Answer

The proper sequence dictates addressing Airway, then Breathing, then Circulation, followed by primary survey adjuncts, and lastly secondary definitive imaging.
According to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) principles, resuscitation of a severely injured polytrauma patient must follow the sequential ABCDE algorithm. The airway (A) must be secured first; because this patient has massive facial crush injuries and active bleeding, endotracheal intubation is likely to fail, making a surgical cricothyroidotomy the required first step. Breathing (B) is assessed next; clinical signs of a tension pneumothorax (absent breath sounds, distended neck veins) necessitate immediate decompression. Circulation (C) is then addressed; the mechanically unstable bleeding pelvis must be stabilized via a binder. Only after the primary survey (ABC) is controlled should adjuncts like the FAST exam be utilized to uncover occult intra-abdominal hemorrhage. Finally, secondary imaging like a CT scan is reserved for patients who have had their immediate life-threats managed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Address Airway (A) via surgical cricothyroidotomy
Secures the patient's airway
Massive midface trauma and oropharyngeal hemorrhage severely distort anatomy, making standard intubation contraindicated. A surgical airway must be established first to prevent immediate hypoxic death.
2
Address Breathing (B) via right-sided needle or finger thoracostomy
Decompresses the right hemithorax
Absent breath sounds and jugular venous distension in an unstable trauma patient suggest a right-sided tension pneumothorax. This must be relieved immediately after the airway is secured to restore venous return and oxygenation.
3
Address Circulation (C) via application of a noninvasive pelvic binder
Reduces pelvic volume and venous bleeding
An unstable pelvis and scrotal hematoma indicate a catastrophic pelvic ring disruption. Applying a binder is a rapid mechanical intervention to address hemorrhagic shock once the airway and breathing are stabilized.
4
Perform Primary Survey Adjuncts via a FAST exam
Evaluates for intraperitoneal fluid
After the ABCs are managed, a FAST exam is conducted to detect concomitant intra-abdominal bleeding that might require exploratory laparotomy.
5
Proceed to Secondary Evaluation via computed tomography (CT)
Obtains definitive imaging for operative or non-operative planning
Moving a patient to the CT scanner is dangerous unless their immediate life threats have been managed and their hemodynamics are sufficiently stabilized or well-understood.

Key Concept

Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) Primary Survey and Prioritization in Polytrauma
Question 63Question →

Match each classic thoracic trauma presentation with its most appropriate initial specific management step.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Penetrating left parasternal trauma, hypotension, jugular venous distention, and distant heart sounds.
Blunt chest trauma, hypoxia, and paradoxical inward movement of a right chest wall segment during inspiration.
Chest trauma, profound hypotension, tracheal deviation to the left, and right-sided hyperresonance to percussion.
Blunt thoracic trauma, hemorrhagic shock, absent breath sounds on the right, and dullness to chest percussion.

Matches

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Answer

Cardiac tamponade pairs with pericardiocentesis/window; flail chest pairs with pain control; tension pneumothorax pairs with immediate decompression; massive hemothorax pairs with tube thoracostomy and volume resuscitation.
Each thoracic trauma scenario presents with textbook physical exam findings that define the condition: Beck's triad for cardiac tamponade, paradoxical movement for flail chest, hyperresonance with tracheal deviation for tension pneumothorax, and dullness to percussion for massive hemothorax. Matching them correctly requires applying standard Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols for initial management.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first presentation (hypotension, JVD, distant heart sounds) to identify Beck's triad.
Diagnosis of cardiac tamponade is established.
Recognizing Beck's triad directs immediate treatment to relieve pericardial pressure.
2
Analyze the second presentation (paradoxical inward movement of a chest wall segment).
Diagnosis of flail chest is established.
Identifying flail chest prioritizes respiratory support and pain management to maintain adequate ventilation.
3
Analyze the third presentation (tracheal deviation, hyperresonance, shock).
Diagnosis of tension pneumothorax is established.
Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis requiring immediate decompression prior to definitive chest tube placement.
4
Analyze the fourth presentation (dullness to percussion, shock, absent breath sounds).
Diagnosis of massive hemothorax is established.
Dullness (fluid) rather than hyperresonance (air) differentiates hemothorax from pneumothorax, directing treatment to fluid resuscitation and drainage.

Key Concept

Recognition of classic ATLS thoracic trauma syndromes and their immediate life-saving interventions.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 64Question →

A 38-year-old male construction worker is brought to the emergency department after falling approximately 25 feet from a scaffold. On arrival, his blood pressure is 72/40 mmHg, heart rate is 138/min, and respiratory rate is 24/min. He is lethargic but maintaining his airway. Bilateral breath sounds are clear and equal. The abdomen is soft, non-distended, and lacks rebound tenderness or guarding. Gentle anteroposterior compression of the iliac crests reveals abnormal outward mobility of the pelvis. Intravenous access is established, and resuscitation with uncrossmatched blood is initiated. A bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) examination demonstrates no free fluid in the pericardial, hepatorenal, splenorenal, or rectovesical spaces. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Application of a pelvic circumferential compression device

Answer

The most appropriate next step is the application of a pelvic circumferential compression device (pelvic binder).
In a trauma patient with hemorrhagic shock, a mechanically unstable pelvis, and a negative FAST exam, the bleeding is localized to the retroperitoneum. The immediate next step in management is the application of a pelvic circumferential compression device (pelvic binder) or a tied bedsheet around the greater trochanters. This decreases the pelvic volume and provides a tamponade effect on the bleeding venous plexus and fractured bone surfaces, stabilizing the patient's hemodynamics. If the patient remains unstable after binder application, the subsequent step would be preperitoneal packing or pelvic angiography with embolization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status and mechanism of injury.
The patient is in profound hemorrhagic shock (blood pressure 72/40 mmHg) following a high-altitude fall.
Identifying instability determines that immediate life-saving interventions must take precedence over definitive diagnostic imaging.
2
Localize the primary source of hemorrhage using physical exam and bedside diagnostics.
The chest is clear, the FAST exam is negative (ruling out massive intraperitoneal or pericardial bleeding), and the pelvis is mechanically unstable on exam.
This constellation of findings localizes the life-threatening hemorrhage to the retroperitoneal space due to a pelvic ring disruption.
3
Determine the appropriate intervention for retroperitoneal hemorrhage from a pelvic fracture.
Apply a pelvic binder.
A pelvic binder reduces the pelvic volume, apposing the fractured bone edges and creating a tamponade effect on the bleeding presacral venous plexus and pelvic arteries.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with pelvic fractures and negative FAST exams require immediate application of a pelvic binder to provide mechanical tamponade of retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 65Question →

A 48-year-old construction worker arrives at the emergency department via helicopter after being crushed by a steel beam across his hips. He is confused, pale, and diaphoretic. Vital signs demonstrate a heart rate of 138/min and a blood pressure of 72/40 mm Hg. His airway is patent and lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Emergency medical personnel placed a circumferential pelvic sheet prior to transport. On evaluation, his abdomen is non-distended and soft to palpation. Inspection of the perineum reveals a scrotal hematoma and blood at the urethral meatus. Point-of-care ultrasound of the abdomen and pericardium shows no abnormal fluid collections. A portable chest radiograph is normal. Anteroposterior pelvic radiograph reveals an open-book pubic symphysis diastasis and a right sacroiliac joint disruption. Despite the rapid infusion of 2 units of uncrossmatched packed red blood cells, his blood pressure remains 75/42 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Pelvic angiography with embolization

Answer

Pelvic angiography with embolization
This patient has an unstable pelvic fracture and remains in hemorrhagic shock despite blood resuscitation. A negative FAST exam and a soft abdomen indicate that the source of bleeding is not intraperitoneal, but rather retroperitoneal (typically from the presacral venous plexus or branches of the internal iliac artery). For hemodynamically unstable patients with pelvic fractures and negative intraperitoneal evaluations, the next most appropriate step is pelvic angiography with embolization (or preperitoneal pelvic packing) to achieve definitive hemostasis. The previously placed pelvic binder provides temporary mechanical stabilization and helps reduce pelvic volume, but active bleeding must still be stopped.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's primary life-threatening condition.
The patient is in hemorrhagic shock (blood pressure 75/42 mm Hg) despite ongoing fluid and blood resuscitation.
According to advanced trauma life support protocols, addressing the cause of hemodynamic instability takes absolute precedence over all other non-life-threatening injuries (such as the suspected urethral injury).
2
Localize the source of the hemorrhage.
Chest radiograph and FAST are negative. The pelvis is fractured (open-book diastasis).
A negative FAST in a hypotensive patient with an unstable pelvic fracture indicates that the bleeding is retroperitoneal rather than intraperitoneal.
3
Determine the definitive management for retroperitoneal pelvic hemorrhage.
Pelvic angiography with embolization is indicated.
This intervention directly addresses arterial bleeding in the pelvic retroperitoneum without releasing the natural tamponade effect of the intact peritoneum.

Key Concept

In a hemodynamically unstable patient with an open-book pelvic fracture and a negative FAST exam, the source of bleeding is retroperitoneal. The next best step is pelvic angiography with embolization (or preperitoneal pelvic packing). Investigation of suspected urethral injuries must be delayed until hemodynamic stability is achieved.

Alternative Method

Preperitoneal pelvic packing is an equally valid alternative to angiography for definitive hemorrhage control in this scenario, depending on institutional resources and the immediate availability of an interventional radiologist.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 66Question →

A 42-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after a high-speed motor vehicle collision in which she was the unrestrained driver. Upon arrival, her temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), blood pressure is 78/52 mmHg, pulse is 135/min, and respirations are 22/min. Her airway is patent and breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. The abdomen is severely distended with diffuse tenderness, guarding, and rebound tenderness. Two large-bore intravenous lines are established, and fluid resuscitation is initiated. A bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) reveals a significant amount of anechoic free fluid in the splenorenal and hepatorenal recesses. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Immediate exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Immediate exploratory laparotomy
The correct answer is immediate exploratory laparotomy. The algorithm for blunt abdominal trauma prioritizes assessing hemodynamic stability. This patient is clearly unstable (hypotensive and tachycardic). In unstable patients, a bedside FAST exam is performed to quickly evaluate for intraperitoneal hemorrhage. Since the FAST exam is positive (free fluid in hepatorenal and splenorenal recesses), the diagnosis of intra-abdominal hemorrhage causing shock is confirmed. The only appropriate next step to prevent exsanguination is an immediate exploratory laparotomy for hemorrhage control. Furthermore, the patient exhibits signs of peritonitis (guarding, rebound tenderness), which is an independent absolute indication for laparotomy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status based on vital signs.
Blood pressure of 78/52 mmHg and pulse of 135/min indicate profound hemodynamic instability (Class III/IV hemorrhagic shock).
Hemodynamic stability is the primary branch point in the blunt abdominal trauma algorithm.
2
Identify the source of bleeding based on the primary survey and imaging.
The FAST exam is positive for free fluid in multiple dependent recesses.
A positive FAST in the setting of trauma confirms intraperitoneal hemorrhage.
3
Determine the definitive treatment for an unstable patient with confirmed intraperitoneal bleeding.
The patient must be taken directly to the operating room for an exploratory laparotomy.
Any delay for further imaging (like CT) in a patient with active, uncontrolled intra-abdominal hemorrhage can be fatal.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST exam require immediate exploratory laparotomy.
Question 67Question →

A 45-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after being rescued from a residential fire. Her airway is patent, and she is hemodynamically stable. Physical examination reveals deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns involving her entire anterior trunk, her entire right arm, and her entire right leg. Her estimated weight is 80 kg80 \text{ kg}. Using the Parkland resuscitation formula (4 mL/kg/%TBSA4 \text{ mL/kg/} \% \text{TBSA}), what should be the target rate of intravenous lactated Ringer solution administration, in mL/hour\text{mL/hour}, for the first 8 hours following her injury?

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Answer: 900

Answer

900
The correct administration rate is 900 mL/hour900 \text{ mL/hour}. According to the Rule of Nines for adult patients, the anterior trunk constitutes 18%18\% TBSA, an entire arm is 9%9\%, and an entire leg is 18%18\%, totaling 45%45\% TBSA burned. Applying the given Parkland formula (4 mL×weight in kg×%TBSA4 \text{ mL} \times \text{weight in kg} \times \% \text{TBSA}), the total 24-hour fluid requirement is 4×80×45=14,400 mL4 \times 80 \times 45 = 14,400 \text{ mL}. Standard burn resuscitation guidelines dictate that 50%50\% of this total volume (7,200 mL7,200 \text{ mL}) must be administered over the first 8 hours following the injury. Dividing this initial volume by 8 hours yields an hourly rate of 900 mL/hour900 \text{ mL/hour}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) affected by the burns.
Anterior trunk (18%) + entire right arm (9%) + entire right leg (18%) = 45% TBSA.
Accurate estimation of the burn area using the Rule of Nines is required to calculate fluid needs.
2
Calculate the total volume of fluid required for the first 24 hours.
4 mL×80 kg×45=14,400 mL4 \text{ mL} \times 80 \text{ kg} \times 45 = 14,400 \text{ mL}
The Parkland formula is used to determine the total 24-hour resuscitation volume requirement.
3
Determine the fluid volume to be administered during the first 8 hours.
14,400 mL/2=7,200 mL14,400 \text{ mL} / 2 = 7,200 \text{ mL}
Standard burn resuscitation guidelines dictate that half (50%) of the total 24-hour fluid volume must be given in the first 8 hours.
4
Calculate the hourly intravenous infusion rate.
7,200 mL/8 hours=900 mL/hour7,200 \text{ mL} / 8 \text{ hours} = 900 \text{ mL/hour}
The rate is needed to properly set the infusion pump for the initial phase of resuscitation.

Key Concept

Calculation of burn fluid resuscitation rates using the Rule of Nines and the Parkland formula.
Question 68Question →

A 41-year-old construction worker is brought to the emergency department after falling approximately 25 feet from a scaffold. On arrival, he is moaning and only withdraws his extremities in response to painful stimuli. His temperature is 36.1°C (97.0°F), blood pressure is 74/40 mm Hg, pulse is 142/min, and respiratory rate is 26/min. Pulse oximetry is 94% on high-flow oxygen. The airway is patent, and breath sounds are present and equal bilaterally. A chest radiograph demonstrates no pneumothorax or hemothorax. The pelvis is mechanically stable to anterior-posterior and lateral compression. Abdominal examination reveals diffuse rigidity and involuntary guarding. Bilateral thigh deformities are noted. Intravenous access is established, and a massive transfusion protocol is initiated. A bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) is attempted but is technically inadequate due to massive subcutaneous emphysema and overlying bowel gas. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Immediate exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Immediate exploratory laparotomy
The correct next step is immediate exploratory laparotomy. This patient is in severe hemorrhagic shock following blunt trauma. According to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols, clinical signs of peritonitis—such as a diffusely rigid abdomen and involuntary guarding—in a hemodynamically unstable trauma patient constitute an absolute indication for immediate surgical exploration. Although the FAST examination is technically inadequate (which would algorithmically prompt a diagnostic peritoneal aspiration to evaluate for intraperitoneal blood in an otherwise equivocal abdomen), the unequivocal physical examination findings of an acute abdomen supersede the need for further diagnostic testing. Proceeding directly to the operating room is critical to achieve prompt hemorrhage control and manage a likely hollow viscus or solid organ injury.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status and primary survey.
The patient is in class IV hemorrhagic shock (BP 74/40 mm Hg, HR 142/min) with a patent airway and intact breathing.
To prioritize life-threatening injuries according to the ATLS ABCDE algorithm.
2
Evaluate the abdominal physical examination and FAST results.
The FAST exam is inconclusive, but the physical examination reveals a rigid abdomen with involuntary guarding.
To determine the source of hemorrhage and the need for operative intervention.
3
Determine the next best step based on the clinical findings.
The presence of frank peritonitis (rigidity, guarding) in an unstable patient mandates immediate exploratory laparotomy, bypassing further diagnostic steps like diagnostic peritoneal aspiration.
Peritonitis indicates a ruptured hollow viscus or massive hemoperitoneum requiring urgent surgical control.

Key Concept

In a hemodynamically unstable trauma patient, the presence of frank peritonitis (e.g., rigid abdomen, involuntary guarding) is an absolute indication for immediate exploratory laparotomy, regardless of ultrasound (FAST) findings.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 69Question →

A 28-year-old male warehouse worker is brought to the emergency department after being crushed laterally against a wall by a moving forklift. Upon arrival, he is confused and diaphoretic. Vital signs are temperature 36.2°C, heart rate 132/min, blood pressure 78/50 mmHg, and respiratory rate 22/min. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Primary survey reveals a patent airway and equal breath sounds bilaterally. The abdomen is soft and non-distended with no peritoneal signs. Palpation of the pelvis reveals gross mechanical instability. Genitourinary examination shows marked scrotal ecchymosis, and digital rectal examination reveals a high-riding prostate. An anteroposterior pelvic radiograph confirms a severely displaced open-book pelvic ring fracture. A pelvic binder is immediately applied, and the patient is resuscitated with 2 units of uncrossmatched packed red blood cells. Following this intervention, his blood pressure remains 80/52 mmHg. A focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) scan is performed and shows no free intraperitoneal or pericardial fluid. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Pelvic angiography

Answer

Pelvic angiography
The correct answer is pelvic angiography. This patient presents with hemorrhagic shock and a mechanically unstable pelvic ring fracture. The initial management for an unstable pelvic fracture involves placing a pelvic binder to reduce pelvic volume and promote the tamponade of venous bleeding, alongside blood product resuscitation. If the patient remains hemodynamically unstable, a FAST examination is critical to determine if there is concurrent intra-abdominal bleeding. A positive FAST would mandate an exploratory laparotomy. However, in this patient, the FAST is negative, indicating that the source of the persistent hemorrhage is retroperitoneal, likely from disrupted pelvic arterial vessels (e.g., branches of the internal iliac artery). The most appropriate definitive next step to control retroperitoneal arterial hemorrhage is pelvic angiography with embolization. Preperitoneal pelvic packing is an alternative in some institutional protocols, but it is not listed among the choices.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's hemodynamic status.
The patient is in class III/IV hemorrhagic shock (confused, BP 80/52 mmHg, HR 132/min) that is unresponsive to initial volume resuscitation and placement of a pelvic binder.
Determining hemodynamic stability dictates whether the patient can safely undergo cross-sectional imaging (CT) or requires immediate intervention.
2
Localize the primary source of the life-threatening hemorrhage.
The FAST scan is negative, ruling out massive intraperitoneal or pericardial bleeding. The physical exam and radiograph confirm an unstable pelvic fracture.
A negative FAST in the presence of an unstable pelvis localizes the severe bleeding to the retroperitoneal space, which is typically venous (venous plexus) but can be arterial in cases of severe instability.
3
Determine the next appropriate intervention in the ATLS pathway.
Since the bleeding is localized to the retroperitoneum and the patient remains hypotensive despite a binder, pelvic angiography with embolization (or preperitoneal pelvic packing) is required.
Exploratory laparotomy is avoided here because opening the peritoneum releases the tamponade effect, potentially accelerating retroperitoneal blood loss.

Key Concept

Management of hemodynamically unstable pelvic fractures
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 70Question →

A 22-year-old male is evaluated in the surgical intensive care unit for sudden-onset, severe abdominal pain. Three days ago, he was involved in a high-speed motorcycle collision, during which he was thrown forward and struck his upper abdomen against the handlebars. His initial trauma evaluation in the emergency department demonstrated stable hemodynamics, and a computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis showed a non-expanding Grade II splenic laceration without active contrast extravasation. He was admitted for nonoperative management and had been clinically stable until this morning.

Current vital signs include a temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F), a heart rate of 135/min, a respiratory rate of 24/min, and a blood pressure of 82/48 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with diffuse rigidity, involuntary guarding, and severe rebound tenderness in all four quadrants. Bowel sounds are absent. Following the rapid infusion of 2 L of isotonic crystalloid, his blood pressure remains 86/50 mm Hg.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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Answer: Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Exploratory laparotomy
The correct answer is exploratory laparotomy. This patient suffered a direct blow to the abdomen (handlebar injury), which is a classic mechanism for hollow viscus injuries (e.g., bowel contusion, mesenteric tear, pancreatic injury). These injuries can have a delayed presentation; ischemia or slowly progressing necrosis can lead to overt bowel perforation several days after the initial trauma. The patient now presents with hemodynamic shock (blood pressure 82/48 mm Hg that does not normalize with fluids), fever, and frank peritonitis (diffuse rigidity and rebound tenderness). In any trauma patient, the presence of hemodynamic instability combined with peritonitis is an absolute indication for an immediate exploratory laparotomy to achieve source control and repair the injury.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status following fluid resuscitation.
The patient's blood pressure is 86/50 mm Hg after 2 L of crystalloid.
Determines that the patient is in persistent shock (hemodynamically unstable).
2
Evaluate the physical examination findings.
The patient has a rigid abdomen, involuntary guarding, and severe rebound tenderness in all four quadrants.
Identifies frank peritonitis, indicating severe intra-abdominal inflammation, likely from a perforated viscus or ischemic bowel.
3
Synthesize the mechanism of injury and timeline.
The direct handlebar blow to the abdomen led to a delayed presentation of fever and peritonitis on hospital day 3.
Blunt abdominal trauma, particularly from a direct blow, can cause mesenteric lacerations or crush injuries to the bowel that slowly necrose and perforate days later.
4
Determine the definitive next step in management.
The patient requires an immediate exploratory laparotomy.
The combination of hemodynamic instability and an acute surgical abdomen (peritonitis) is an absolute indication for emergency laparotomy, bypassing any further diagnostic imaging.

Key Concept

In patients with blunt abdominal trauma, the development of hemodynamic instability and frank peritonitis (e.g., rigid abdomen, rebound tenderness) represents an absolute indication for immediate exploratory laparotomy. Further diagnostic testing (such as CT scans) is contraindicated.
Question 71Question →

A 2929-year-old woman, G2P1, at 3232 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department via ambulance following a motor vehicle collision. She was the restrained driver of a sedan that was struck on the driver's side by a commercial truck. On arrival, she is immobilized on a backboard with a cervical collar. She appears confused and is diaphoretic. Temperature is 36.5∘C36.5^\circ\text{C} (97.7∘F97.7^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure is 78/45 mmHg78/45\text{ mmHg}, heart rate is 132/min132\text{/min}, and respiratory rate is 24/min24\text{/min}. Pulse oximetry is 96%96\% on 15 L/min15\text{ L/min} oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. The airway is patent, and breath sounds are equal bilaterally. The uterus is palpated above the umbilicus. The abdomen is diffusely tender to palpation with involuntary guarding. There is no external vaginal bleeding. A focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) reveals a large amount of free fluid in the hepatorenal space (Morison's pouch). Fetal heart tones are 140/min140\text{/min}. Two large-bore intravenous lines are established, and administration of warmed crystalloid fluids is initiated. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

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Answer: Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Exploratory laparotomy
The correct answer is exploratory laparotomy. This patient has experienced blunt abdominal trauma and is exhibiting signs of severe hemorrhagic shock (hypotension, tachycardia, altered mental status). The positive FAST examination indicates a massive intraperitoneal hemorrhage, likely from a solid organ injury such as a splenic or hepatic laceration. According to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols, the standard of care for a hemodynamically unstable patient with a positive FAST is immediate exploratory laparotomy to surgically control the bleeding. Although the patient is pregnant, the fundamental principles of trauma resuscitation do not change; maternal resuscitation and stabilization remain the absolute priority because saving the mother provides the best chance of saving the fetus.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's hemodynamic status.
The patient has a blood pressure of 78/45 mmHg78/45\text{ mmHg} and a heart rate of 132/min132\text{/min}, indicating hemodynamic instability (Class III/IV hemorrhagic shock).
Determining hemodynamic stability is the critical branch point in the blunt abdominal trauma algorithm.
2
Evaluate the results of the primary diagnostic adjuncts.
The FAST examination is positive for free fluid in Morison's pouch.
A positive FAST in a trauma setting confirms the presence of intraperitoneal hemorrhage.
3
Determine the appropriate intervention based on the trauma algorithm.
The combination of hemodynamic instability and a positive FAST exam mandates immediate exploratory laparotomy.
Definitive surgical control of hemorrhage is required. Maternal stabilization takes absolute precedence to optimize both maternal and fetal outcomes.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST exam require immediate exploratory laparotomy, and maternal resuscitation is the priority in pregnant trauma patients.
Question 72Question →

A 19-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after colliding with a tree while snowboarding. On arrival, he complains of severe left upper quadrant abdominal pain and left shoulder pain. Initial vital signs include a blood pressure of 115/70 mm Hg, heart rate of 105/min, and respiratory rate of 18/min. A Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) exam shows a moderate amount of free fluid in the splenorenal recess. Because the patient is hemodynamically stable, a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast is performed, which reveals a deep splenic laceration with active contrast extravasation. Shortly after returning to the trauma bay, the patient becomes confused and diaphoretic. Repeat vital signs show a blood pressure of 82/45 mm Hg and a heart rate of 138/min. The patient is rapidly transfused with 1 unit of uncrossmatched packed red blood cells, but his blood pressure remains 84/48 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Exploratory laparotomy
This patient initially presented in a hemodynamically stable condition, allowing for a CT scan that appropriately identified a splenic laceration with active extravasation. However, his subsequent clinical deterioration (hypotension, tachycardia, confusion, diaphoresis) and failure to respond to blood transfusion indicate active, uncontrolled intra-abdominal hemorrhage. In any patient with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST, hemodynamic instability that is unresponsive to resuscitation mandates immediate exploratory laparotomy. The patient's dynamic change in status overrides the imaging findings that might otherwise prompt a non-operative pathway.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's current hemodynamic status.
The patient has become hemodynamically unstable (BP 82/45 mm Hg, HR 138/min) and is unresponsive to initial blood transfusion.
Hemodynamic status dictates the algorithmic pathway in trauma.
2
Re-evaluate the management plan based on the change in clinical status.
The initial plan for potential nonoperative management or angioembolization is no longer safe.
Active hemorrhage causing uncompensated shock requires immediate source control.
3
Determine the definitive intervention.
The patient must be taken immediately to the operating room for an exploratory laparotomy.
Laparotomy allows for rapid control of the splenic hemorrhage and evaluation of any other intra-abdominal injuries.

Key Concept

Patients with solid organ injuries who become hemodynamically unstable or fail to respond to initial resuscitation must undergo immediate exploratory laparotomy, regardless of previous imaging findings.
Question 73Question →

A 38-year-old female is evaluated in the emergency department after a low-speed collision in which her bicycle was struck by a turning vehicle. She was wearing a helmet and reports no loss of consciousness. She complains primarily of left-sided abdominal pain and left shoulder pain. Upon arrival, her blood pressure is 122/78 mm Hg, heart rate is 88/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The primary survey is unremarkable. Physical examination reveals bruising over the left lower ribs. Abdominal examination demonstrates mild left upper quadrant tenderness but no rebound or guarding. A bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) demonstrates a distinct rim of anechoic fluid surrounding the spleen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast

Answer

Computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast is the correct next step because the patient is hemodynamically stable, allowing for safe anatomic localization and grading of the intra-abdominal injury.
The correct action is to obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast. The management of blunt abdominal trauma hinges primarily on the patient's hemodynamic status. This patient has evidence of intra-abdominal hemorrhage (a positive FAST exam) but maintains normal blood pressure and heart rate. According to trauma algorithms, hemodynamically stable patients with a positive FAST should proceed to a CT scan. This imaging modality precisely localizes the injury, grades solid organ damage, detects active extravasation, and evaluates for hollow viscus injury, allowing the surgical team to determine if nonoperative management is safe or if angioembolization/surgery is required.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's hemodynamic status.
The patient's vital signs (BP 122/78 mm Hg, HR 88/min) demonstrate clear hemodynamic stability.
Stability determines whether the patient can safely be transported to the radiology suite for advanced imaging or requires immediate operative intervention.
2
Interpret the adjuncts to the primary survey.
The FAST examination reveals free intraperitoneal fluid (hemoperitoneum), likely from a splenic injury given the left upper quadrant tenderness and left shoulder pain (Kehr's sign).
Identifying fluid confirms intra-abdominal injury, shifting the management algorithm toward defining the extent of that injury.
3
Select the appropriate diagnostic pathway based on the ATLS algorithm.
A hemodynamically stable patient with a positive FAST must undergo a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast.
CT imaging safely defines the exact organ injured, grades the severity, identifies active arterial extravasation, and rules out associated injuries, which guides whether management should be surgical, angiographic, or observational.

Key Concept

In blunt abdominal trauma, hemodynamically stable patients with a positive FAST exam should undergo CT scanning of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast to define the anatomy and severity of the injury.
Question 74Question →

As a trauma and burn unit leader, you are tasked with managing multiple complex clinical scenarios simultaneously. Match each specific patient presentation to the most appropriate immediate diagnostic or therapeutic intervention.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

An adult driver involved in a high-speed deceleration collision, currently hemodynamically stable, whose initial chest radiograph reveals rightward deviation of the nasogastric tube, widened mediastinum, and apical capping.
A severe burn victim on hospital day two receiving aggressive fluid resuscitation, who develops new-onset oliguria, peak airway pressures of 45 cm H2O, and a tense, distended abdomen.
An individual with circumferential full-thickness thermal injuries to the right lower extremity, who begins to experience severe pain with passive toe extension and decreased distal sensation, despite having palpable pedal pulses.
A pedestrian struck by a vehicle sustaining an 'open-book' pelvic fracture, remaining persistently hypotensive despite the application of a pelvic binder, blood transfusion, and a negative focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) examination.
A victim of penetrating chest trauma to the left parasternal region who loses palpable pulses upon arrival to the trauma bay, but exhibited signs of life at the scene and currently shows organized electrical activity on the cardiac monitor.

Matches

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Answer

Each specific clinical presentation requires a precise, protocol-driven intervention: CTA chest for stable suspected aortic injury, bladder pressure measurement for burn-induced abdominal compartment syndrome, escharotomy for impending limb ischemia, angiography/packing for arterial pelvic hemorrhage, and ED thoracotomy for penetrating thoracic arrest.
Each trauma presentation describes a critical branch point in ATLS or burn protocols. Success relies on recognizing subtle pathophysiologic shifts—such as early compartment syndrome, retroperitoneal versus intraperitoneal bleeding, or appropriate utilization of ED thoracotomy—and applying the exact corresponding diagnostic or therapeutic tool.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the deceleration injury presentation.
Identified signs of blunt aortic injury in a stable patient.
Apical capping and rightward deviation of the nasogastric tube require definitive imaging with CTA before operative intervention.
2
Evaluate the complication during burn fluid resuscitation.
Identified suspected abdominal compartment syndrome.
Massive third-spacing into the peritoneal cavity increases intra-abdominal pressure, causing organ dysfunction (oliguria, elevated airway pressures); it must be confirmed via bladder transducer.
3
Assess the circumferential burn presentation.
Identified early extremity compartment syndrome.
Pain out of proportion and exacerbated by passive stretch necessitates escharotomy; waiting for absent pulses leads to limb loss.
4
Analyze the unstable pelvic fracture scenario.
Identified retroperitoneal arterial hemorrhage.
A negative FAST effectively rules out significant intraperitoneal bleeding. Ongoing shock despite a binder directs management toward addressing arterial sources via angiography or packing.
5
Evaluate the penetrating traumatic arrest.
Identified the indication for resuscitative thoracotomy.
Penetrating trauma causing loss of pulses but with recent signs of life and organized rhythm provides a narrow window for survival via direct surgical relief of tamponade or hemorrhage control.

Key Concept

Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) Protocols and Burn Complication Management
Question 75Question →

Match each classic trauma or burn presentation to its most appropriate definitive intervention or next step in management.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Hemodynamically unstable patient with blunt abdominal trauma and free fluid in the hepatorenal recess
Hypotensive trauma patient with unilaterally absent breath sounds, hyperresonance, and tracheal deviation
Circumferential full-thickness burn to the arm with progressive loss of distal pulses and decreased capillary refill
Hemodynamically stable patient with a pelvic ring fracture and contrast extravasation seen on computed tomography

Matches

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Answer

Blunt trauma + positive FAST -> Laparotomy; Tension pneumothorax -> Thoracostomy; Circumferential burn with pulse loss -> Escharotomy; Stable pelvic fracture with extravasation -> Angioembolization.
Each presentation requires a specific, definitive intervention. Unstable blunt trauma with positive FAST indicates hemorrhagic shock from intra-abdominal injury, necessitating exploratory laparotomy. Tracheal deviation and hyperresonance in a hypotensive patient point to tension pneumothorax, requiring immediate decompression. Loss of pulses in a circumferential burn signifies compartment syndrome, treated by escharotomy. Contrast extravasation in a stable pelvic fracture points to arterial bleeding, which is best addressed with angioembolization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each clinical presentation to determine the primary life-threatening or limb-threatening issue.
Identified intra-abdominal bleeding, tension pneumothorax, burn-induced compartment syndrome, and pelvic arterial hemorrhage.
Accurate diagnosis of the specific trauma pathology dictates the appropriate immediate intervention.
2
Match the identified pathology with the standard ATLS guideline intervention.
Matched each presentation to laparotomy, decompression, escharotomy, and embolization respectively.
Standardized trauma protocols ensure rapid and definitive management of critical injuries.

Key Concept

Standard management of life-threatening and limb-threatening injuries in trauma and burn patients
Question 76Question →

During a trauma surgery conference, a team reviews the intraoperative management algorithms for retroperitoneal hematomas discovered during emergency exploratory laparotomies. The attending surgeon emphasizes that the decision to open and explore a hematoma depends critically on its anatomical zone and the mechanism of injury. Match each specific clinical scenario involving a retroperitoneal hematoma with the most appropriate intraoperative management strategy.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A large centromedial (Zone 1) retroperitoneal hematoma discovered during laparotomy for a high-speed motor vehicle collision.
A stable, non-expanding lateral (Zone 2) retroperitoneal hematoma discovered during laparotomy after a 20-foot fall.
A lateral (Zone 2) retroperitoneal hematoma discovered during laparotomy for a stab wound to the left flank.
An expanding pelvic (Zone 3) retroperitoneal hematoma discovered during laparotomy in a hypotensive patient with a crushed pelvis.

Matches

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Answer

Zone 1 hematomas (blunt or penetrating) require exploration. Zone 2 hematomas require exploration if penetrating, but observation if blunt and non-expanding. Zone 3 hematomas from blunt trauma should not be explored; they require pelvic packing or angioembolization.
The correct matches reflect the standard ATLS operative algorithms for retroperitoneal hematomas. Zone 1 (centromedial) hematomas are explored regardless of mechanism due to high risk of major vascular or pancreaticoduodenal injury. Zone 2 (flank) hematomas are explored for penetrating trauma, but observed for blunt trauma if non-expanding. Zone 3 (pelvic) hematomas from blunt trauma are treated with packing or angioembolization, as surgical exploration destroys the tamponade effect and worsens bleeding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the anatomical zones of the retroperitoneum.
Zone 1 is centromedial, Zone 2 is lateral/flank, and Zone 3 is pelvic.
The anatomical structures contained within each zone dictate the risk of life-threatening injury.
2
Determine the management for Zone 1 hematomas.
Zone 1 hematomas harbor critical vascular and pancreaticoduodenal structures, mandating exploration regardless of the injury mechanism.
Injuries to the aorta or IVC can rapidly exsanguinate the patient, and missed duodenal/pancreatic injuries carry extremely high morbidity.
3
Differentiate Zone 2 management based on the mechanism of injury.
Blunt trauma is observed if non-expanding due to effective natural tamponade. Penetrating trauma requires exploration.
Penetrating trauma has a high risk of hollow viscus or renal tract injury that requires definitive surgical repair.
4
Determine the management for Zone 3 hematomas in the setting of blunt trauma.
They are managed with extra-peritoneal packing or angioembolization. Direct exploration is avoided.
Zone 3 bleeding is primarily venous from the presacral plexus. Opening the hematoma removes the natural tamponade, risking fatal exsanguination.

Key Concept

Intraoperative management of retroperitoneal hematomas based on anatomical zone and mechanism of injury.
Question 77Question →

Match each patient's clinical presentation following trauma with the most appropriate next step in diagnosis or management.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 32-year-old man presents with a stab wound to zone II of the neck, an expanding pulsatile hematoma, and a muffled voice.
A 45-year-old woman involved in a high-speed frontal motor vehicle collision is hemodynamically stable but has a widened mediastinum on an initial portable chest x-ray.
A 22-year-old man falls from a 20-foot roof, presenting with a pelvic fracture, a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, and gross blood at the urethral meatus.
A 55-year-old man is hypotensive (blood pressure 75/40 mm Hg) after a motorcycle crash; primary survey reveals clear breath sounds bilaterally and a positive focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) exam.

Matches

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Answer

Proper management requires identifying immediate life threats for operative intervention versus stable presentations requiring further diagnostic imaging.
Each correct pairing strictly follows ATLS guidelines, which prioritize immediate surgical control of hemorrhage for unstable patients and targeted diagnostics for stable patients with specific injury patterns.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the hemodynamic stability of the patient in each scenario.
Determines whether the patient can safely undergo advanced imaging or requires immediate surgical intervention.
Hemodynamically unstable patients cannot be safely transported to a CT scanner and require immediate hemorrhage control.
2
Identify specific 'hard signs' or classic physical exam findings.
Guides the specific intervention (e.g., retrograde urethrography instead of Foley catheterization for meatal blood).
Prevents iatrogenic injury and ensures adherence to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols.

Key Concept

ATLS Protocols and Next Best Step in Trauma
Question 78Question →

A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motorcycle collision. On presentation, he is lethargic and only opens his eyes to painful stimuli. Vital signs are temperature 36.2°C (97.2°F), blood pressure 78/45 mm Hg, heart rate 138/min, and respiratory rate 24/min. Oxygen saturation is 95% on a non-rebreather mask. The patient undergoes rapid sequence intubation for airway protection. Following intubation, a portable chest radiograph shows clear lung fields without pneumothorax or hemothorax. A pelvic radiograph reveals no fractures. Focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) demonstrates a large amount of anechoic fluid in the hepatorenal and splenorenal recesses. The patient receives warmed intravenous crystalloid fluids and uncrossmatched type O-negative blood, but his blood pressure remains 80/48 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Exploratory laparotomy
This patient has sustained blunt abdominal trauma, is hemodynamically unstable (hypotensive, tachycardic), and has a positive FAST exam indicating intraperitoneal hemorrhage. According to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols, the most appropriate next step is immediate exploratory laparotomy to identify and stop the source of bleeding. Delaying surgical hemostasis in a patient with refractory hemorrhagic shock leads to the lethal triad of coagulopathy, hypothermia, and acidosis, ultimately resulting in death.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical problem
The patient is in hemorrhagic shock due to blunt trauma, evidenced by severe hypotension and tachycardia despite initial fluid and blood resuscitation.
Vital signs dictate the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) management algorithm.
2
Analyze the diagnostic findings
The positive FAST exam confirms the presence of significant intraperitoneal hemorrhage as the source of the shock.
A source of bleeding must be rapidly identified in an unstable trauma patient.
3
Determine the next best step in management
Immediate surgical intervention is required to control the bleeding.
A hemodynamically unstable patient with a positive FAST exam must go directly to the operating room; other imaging is deferred.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST exam require immediate exploratory laparotomy.
Question 79Question →

A 38-year-old forestry worker is brought to the trauma center after a severe chainsaw accident followed by a fall down a steep ravine. On arrival, he is unresponsive with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 5. He has a massive, spurting arterial laceration to his right thigh. He exhibits sonorous, gurgling respirations. Auscultation reveals absent breath sounds on the left hemithorax with jugular venous distention. His heart rate is 142/min and blood pressure is 65/30 mm Hg. Arrange the following critical interventions in the most appropriate sequential order based on current Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) priorities.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence based on modern ATLS <C>ABCDE protocols is: 1) Apply a commercial tourniquet, 2) Perform endotracheal intubation, 3) Perform a left-sided thoracostomy, 4) Initiate massive transfusion, and 5) Perform a FAST exam.
Modern Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) 10th Edition guidelines emphasize the <C>ABCDE paradigm for the primary survey. The absolute first step is the control of Catastrophic external hemorrhage (<C>) using a tourniquet or direct pressure, as exsanguination is the most rapid cause of preventable trauma death. Once halted, the classic sequence resumes: Airway (A) management via definitive intubation for a GCS < 8; Breathing (B) management via decompression of tension pneumothorax; Circulation (C) resuscitation with uncrossmatched blood products; and finally diagnostic adjuncts like FAST to guide subsequent operative interventions. Any deviation from this sequence risks rapid patient demise.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify and control the most immediate threat to life (exsanguinating external hemorrhage).
Prioritize tourniquet application (<C> in <C>ABCDE).
An airway is futile if the patient loses their entire circulating blood volume during the intubation attempt.
2
Assess and manage the airway.
Prioritize endotracheal intubation (A).
A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 5 and sonorous respirations indicate a complete inability to maintain or protect the airway.
3
Assess and manage breathing and ventilation.
Prioritize needle or finger thoracostomy (B).
Absent breath sounds, jugular venous distention, and severe shock indicate a tension pneumothorax, which must be decompressed to allow effective ventilation and venous return.
4
Support circulation through definitive resuscitation.
Prioritize massive transfusion protocol (C).
The patient is in Class IV hemorrhagic shock; volume replacement with blood products follows mechanical bleeding control and chest decompression.
5
Complete primary survey adjuncts.
Prioritize the FAST exam.
Used to identify non-compressible torso hemorrhage, performed only once immediate life-saving interventions are underway.

Key Concept

The modern ATLS Primary Survey strictly follows the <C>ABCDE sequence, placing Catastrophic hemorrhage control before Airway management.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 80Question →

A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining injuries in a kitchen grease fire. On examination, he is alert and oriented. His blood pressure is 125/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 98/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Physical examination reveals deep partial-thickness burns involving the entire anterior surface of his chest and abdomen, as well as the entire anterior surface of both arms. His airway is patent with no signs of inhalational injury. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the estimated total body surface area (TBSA) percentage affected by these burns?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 27

Answer

27
Based on the Rule of Nines for adults, the anterior trunk (chest and abdomen) accounts for 18% of the total body surface area. The entire surface of one arm accounts for 9%, meaning the anterior surface of one arm is 4.5%. Since the anterior surfaces of both arms are involved, this contributes an additional 9% (4.5% x 2). Adding these values together yields a total estimated burn area of 27% (18% + 9%).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the percentage for the anterior trunk.
18%
According to the Rule of Nines, the entire anterior trunk (chest and abdomen combined) accounts for 18% of total body surface area.
2
Determine the percentage for the anterior surface of both arms.
9%
Each entire arm accounts for 9% of TBSA, making the anterior surface of one arm 4.5%. Since both arms are involved anteriorly, 4.5% + 4.5% = 9%.
3
Calculate the total body surface area affected.
27%
Adding the affected areas: 18% (anterior trunk) + 9% (anterior arms) = 27%.

Key Concept

The Rule of Nines is a standardized method used to quickly estimate the total body surface area (TBSA) affected by partial-thickness and full-thickness burns in adults, which is essential for guiding fluid resuscitation.
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