Trauma and Burns

283 questions

Question 101Question →

A 31-year-old woman is brought to the trauma center by emergency medical services after a high-speed head-on motor vehicle collision. At the scene, she was unresponsive and intubated for airway protection. Upon arrival, her temperature is 36.1°C (97.0°F), blood pressure is 76/40 mmHg, and heart rate is 142/min. She is receiving mechanical ventilation. Glasgow Coma Scale score is 3T. Pupillary examination reveals a 7-mm nonreactive right pupil and a 3-mm reactive left pupil. Breath sounds are equal bilaterally. The pelvis is mechanically stable on anteroposterior compression. There are no obvious external sources of bleeding. A focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) examination reveals a large anechoic stripe in the hepatorenal recess. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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Answer: Immediate exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Immediate exploratory laparotomy is the most appropriate next step to achieve hemorrhage control in this hemodynamically unstable patient.
The correct action is immediate exploratory laparotomy. This patient has two immediate life threats: profound hemorrhagic shock from intra-abdominal bleeding (confirmed by a positive FAST) and severe traumatic brain injury with signs of uncal herniation (blown pupil, GCS 3). According to ATLS principles, circulation and hemorrhage control take absolute precedence. A patient cannot survive a craniotomy, nor tolerate a trip to the CT scanner, if they exsanguinate. The priority is to establish source control in the operating room. Often in such extreme cases, a simultaneous laparotomy and craniotomy may be performed, but the laparotomy cannot be delayed for neurologic diagnostics.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status.
The patient is in Class III/IV hemorrhagic shock, evidenced by a blood pressure of 76/40 mmHg and a heart rate of 142/min.
Hemodynamic instability dictates the entire trauma algorithm, shifting focus from comprehensive diagnostics to immediate life-saving interventions.
2
Interpret the diagnostic adjuncts.
The FAST examination is positive for free fluid in Morison's pouch (hepatorenal recess).
In the setting of blunt trauma and shock, a positive FAST confirms that intra-abdominal hemorrhage is the primary cause of the hemodynamic instability.
3
Evaluate competing clinical priorities (Traumatic Brain Injury vs. Hemorrhagic Shock).
The patient has signs of uncal herniation (GCS 3T, asymmetric blown pupil) alongside exsanguinating intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
Complex trauma often presents with competing life-threatening injuries requiring prioritization.
4
Determine the definitive next step based on Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) principles.
The patient must be taken directly to the operating room for an exploratory laparotomy.
Restoration of circulating blood volume and source control of hemorrhage takes absolute precedence. Neurologic interventions (CT scan, craniotomy) cannot be prioritized over restoring perfusion, as the ischemic brain will not survive ongoing catastrophic hemorrhagic shock.

Key Concept

In patients with multiple severe injuries, hemodynamic stabilization and control of massive hemorrhage (via exploratory laparotomy for a positive FAST) take precedence over diagnostic imaging or intervention for traumatic brain injury.
Question 102Question →

A 28-year-old pregnant woman at 34 weeks gestation is evaluated in the trauma center following a high-velocity motor vehicle collision. First responders noted substantial vehicular damage. On arrival, she is alert but anxious. Her airway is patent and breathing is unlabored. Vital signs show a temperature of 36.7∘C36.7^\circ\text{C} (98.1∘F98.1^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure of 78/48 mm Hg78/48\text{ mm Hg}, pulse of 134/min134/\text{min}, and respiratory rate of 24/min24/\text{min}. The trachea is midline, and breath sounds are symmetric. Her abdomen is distended, gravid, and diffusely tender with rebound. Manual compression of the iliac crests reveals a stable pelvis. Two large-bore peripheral intravenous catheters are placed, and warmed crystalloid infusion is started. A bedside ultrasonographic assessment demonstrates an anechoic fluid collection in the hepatorenal space. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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Answer: Transfer the patient to the surgical suite for an operative exploration

Answer

Transfer the patient to the surgical suite for an operative exploration
This patient presents with hemorrhagic shock following blunt trauma, evidenced by severe hypotension and tachycardia. The positive focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) confirms the presence of intraperitoneal hemorrhage. In any hemodynamically unstable patient with a positive FAST, the immediate next step is urgent transfer to the operating room for an exploratory laparotomy to control the bleeding. Although this patient is pregnant, the core algorithms of trauma resuscitation remain identical to those for non-pregnant patients. Maternal stabilization and survival are the absolute highest priorities, as they are the most crucial determinants of fetal survival.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess hemodynamic stability
The patient is hypotensive (78/48 mm Hg78/48\text{ mm Hg}) and tachycardic (134/min134/\text{min}), indicating hemorrhagic shock.
Determines the appropriate algorithmic pathway for blunt trauma management.
2
Interpret the FAST examination
The ultrasound shows free fluid in the hepatorenal space (Morison's pouch), confirming intraperitoneal hemorrhage.
Identifies the anatomic source of bleeding in an unstable patient.
3
Determine the definitive management
The patient requires immediate surgical exploration (laparotomy).
An unstable patient with confirmed intraperitoneal bleeding needs immediate operative hemorrhage control; other concerns (such as pregnancy or surrogate consent) must not delay life-saving maternal resuscitation.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST examination require immediate exploratory laparotomy, regardless of pregnancy status. Maternal stabilization is the primary priority in pregnant trauma patients.
Question 103Question →

A 28-year-old construction worker is brought to the emergency department after a heavy concrete beam fell on his pelvis. His blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg and heart rate is 92/min. Primary survey reveals a patent airway and clear lungs. A pelvic binder is applied. Physical examination reveals a scrotal hematoma and blood at the urethral meatus. Arrange the following diagnostic and therapeutic steps in the correct chronological sequence to appropriately evaluate and manage this patient, assuming findings lead to the diagnosis and treatment of an intraperitoneal bladder rupture.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: 1) Perform a FAST examination, 2) Obtain a retrograde urethrogram, 3) Insert a transurethral Foley catheter, 4) Perform a CT cystogram, 5) Perform an exploratory laparotomy.
The algorithm for pelvic trauma with suspected urologic injury follows ATLS priorities. The FAST exam is an initial primary survey adjunct. Following this, the sequence of urologic evaluation is strictly dictated by anatomic progression and safety: the urethra must be evaluated (retrograde urethrogram) before a catheter can be placed. Once the catheter is placed, the bladder can be evaluated with contrast (CT cystogram). Finally, the diagnosis of an intraperitoneal rupture dictates operative management (exploratory laparotomy).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Perform a FAST examination
Assesses for hemoperitoneum.
According to ATLS protocols, ruling out massive intra-abdominal hemorrhage is part of the initial primary survey adjuncts, prior to focused urologic workup.
2
Obtain a retrograde urethrogram
Evaluates the integrity of the urethra.
Blood at the urethral meatus is an absolute contraindication to blind urethral catheterization. The urethra must be visualized first to avoid converting a partial tear into a complete transection.
3
Insert a transurethral Foley catheter
Allows for bladder decompression and evaluation of urine.
After the urethra is cleared by the retrograde urethrogram, a catheter is necessary to monitor urine output and identify gross hematuria, which indicates potential bladder injury.
4
Perform a computed tomography (CT) cystogram
Identifies the presence and location of a bladder rupture.
Gross hematuria in the setting of a pelvic fracture mandates imaging of the bladder to differentiate between extraperitoneal and intraperitoneal ruptures.
5
Perform an exploratory laparotomy
Surgically repairs the bladder defect.
Unlike extraperitoneal ruptures which can often be managed with catheter drainage alone, intraperitoneal bladder ruptures leak urine into the peritoneal cavity and require urgent operative repair.

Key Concept

Sequential ATLS management of pelvic trauma complicated by suspected urologic injury.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 104Question →

A 54-year-old man arrives at the trauma center via ambulance after falling approximately 20 feet from a roof. En route, emergency medical services placed a cervical collar and secured him to a backboard. Upon arrival, the patient is agitated, pale, and diaphoretic. His temperature is 36.8∘C36.8^\circ\text{C} (98.2∘F98.2^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure is 78/48 mmHg78/48\text{ mmHg}, pulse is 132/min132\text{/min}, and respiratory rate is 22/min22\text{/min}. Oxygen saturation is 98%98\% on a non-rebreather mask. The airway is patent, and breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. The abdomen is notably distended and diffusely tender to palpation, with significant involuntary guarding. The pelvis is mechanically stable to manual compression. Two large-bore intravenous lines are established, and rapid resuscitation with warmed isotonic crystalloids is initiated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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Answer: Perform bedside ultrasonography of the peritoneal cavity

Answer

Perform bedside ultrasonography of the peritoneal cavity
This patient is exhibiting signs of severe hemorrhagic shock (tachycardia, hypotension, diaphoresis) following blunt trauma. In the initial evaluation of an unstable trauma patient, the source of bleeding must be identified rapidly without leaving the resuscitation bay. Bedside ultrasonography (FAST exam) is the standard next step to quickly evaluate for intraperitoneal free fluid (blood) or pericardial effusion. If the FAST exam is positive in this unstable patient, it will immediately dictate the need for emergency surgical intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's vital signs and clinical presentation.
The patient has a blood pressure of 78/48 mmHg and a heart rate of 132/min, indicating Class III/IV hemorrhagic shock.
Recognizing hemodynamic instability is the critical first step in trauma triage.
2
Evaluate the primary survey findings.
The airway is patent and breath sounds are equal bilaterally, ruling out tension pneumothorax or massive hemothorax as the primary cause of shock. The abdomen is distended with peritonitis.
This localizes the likely source of hemorrhage to the intra-abdominal cavity.
3
Determine the appropriate diagnostic pathway based on hemodynamic status.
Because the patient is unstable, advanced imaging that requires transport must be avoided. A rapid bedside evaluation is required.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocol dictates using a Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) to confirm intraperitoneal free fluid before surgical exploration.

Key Concept

Management algorithm for hemodynamically unstable blunt abdominal trauma
Question 105Question →

A 22-year-old man is brought to the trauma bay after being struck by a car while crossing the street. He is moaning in pain and has visible bruising on his chest and abdomen. According to the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocol, arrange the following initial assessment and management steps in the correct chronological order.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence follows the ATLS primary survey ABCDE approach: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocol mandates a structured, sequential approach to trauma patients to identify and treat the most immediate life-threatening conditions first. This follows the established ABCDE algorithm: Airway (with cervical spine protection), Breathing (ventilation and oxygenation), Circulation (hemorrhage control and perfusion), Disability (neurologic status), and Exposure (complete examination and environmental control). Skipping steps can lead to fatal consequences, such as failing to recognize hypoxia before addressing a bleeding wound.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the first priority in trauma resuscitation.
Airway with cervical spine protection.
Securing the airway and preventing further cervical spine injury prevents immediate death from hypoxia and spinal cord damage.
2
Identify the second priority.
Breathing and ventilation.
Once the airway is secure, adequate oxygenation and ventilation must be confirmed, and life-threatening conditions like tension pneumothorax ruled out.
3
Identify the third priority.
Circulation with hemorrhage control.
With a secure airway and adequate ventilation, the next most immediate threat to life is hemorrhagic shock, requiring vascular access and bleeding control.
4
Identify the fourth priority.
Disability (neurologic status).
A rapid neurologic exam establishes a baseline and identifies potential traumatic brain injury or increased intracranial pressure.
5
Identify the fifth priority.
Exposure and environmental control.
The patient must be completely undressed to find all injuries, but hypothermia must be prevented simultaneously.

Key Concept

Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) Primary Survey Sequence
Question 106Question →

A 28-year-old military contractor is brought to the trauma bay immediately after an improvised explosive device (IED) blast. On arrival, bright red blood is vigorously spurting from a right mid-thigh amputation. The patient has agonal respirations, severe maxillofacial crush injuries, and a hoarse, gurgling voice. Physical examination reveals absent breath sounds on the left hemithorax with distended neck veins. His blood pressure is undetectable, and his heart rate is 145/min. Arrange the following critical management steps in the correct chronological order according to the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) primary survey protocol.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Application of a proximal arterial tourniquet, followed by Establishment of a definitive airway, then Decompression of the left pleural space, followed by Initiation of massive transfusion protocol, and finally Assessment of pupillary response and motor function.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) 10th edition protocol utilizes the <C>ABCDE algorithm, emphasizing that Catastrophic external hemorrhage (<C>) must be addressed prior to Airway (A). If a patient has massive, life-threatening external bleeding (such as a spurting amputation), attempting any other intervention before applying a tourniquet or direct pressure will result in exsanguination. Following catastrophic hemorrhage control, the standard sequence resumes: Airway maintenance with cervical spine restriction (managing the maxillofacial trauma), Breathing and ventilation (addressing the tension pneumothorax), Circulation (intravenous access and massive transfusion for shock), and Disability (neurologic evaluation).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the most immediate threat to life based on the <C>ABCDE protocol.
The vigorously spurting right mid-thigh amputation represents catastrophic external hemorrhage.
Massive arterial bleeding will cause fatal exsanguination within seconds to minutes, preceding death from airway loss. This must be addressed first with a tourniquet.
2
Assess and secure the airway while maintaining cervical spine restriction.
The maxillofacial crush injury and agonal respirations necessitate a definitive airway (e.g., surgical cricothyroidotomy or endotracheal intubation).
Once exsanguination is halted, hypoxia from an unprotected or obstructed airway is the next most rapid cause of death.
3
Evaluate breathing and manage impaired ventilation.
Absent left breath sounds and distended neck veins are diagnostic of a tension pneumothorax, requiring immediate thoracostomy.
A tension pneumothorax severely impairs both ventilation and venous return, and must be decompressed immediately after the airway is secured.
4
Assess systemic circulation and initiate volume resuscitation.
The undetectable blood pressure and severe tachycardia require the initiation of a massive transfusion protocol via large-bore access.
Restoring intravascular volume is critical for tissue perfusion, but must follow hemorrhage control, airway, and breathing to ensure oxygenated blood is being circulated.
5
Perform a baseline neurologic assessment.
Pupillary response and motor function (Disability) are evaluated.
Establishing a baseline neurologic exam dictates further neurosurgical intervention, but can only be accurately assessed once hypoxia and hypotension are addressed.

Key Concept

The ATLS Primary Survey (<C>ABCDE Approach)
Question 107Question →

Paramedics rush a 41-year-old female to the emergency department after she was thrown from a horse. The patient is confused and diaphoretic. Vital signs show a heart rate of 135/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, and blood pressure of 78/50 mm Hg. Large-bore intravenous access is established, and a 1-liter bolus of crystalloid is rapidly infused, but her blood pressure only improves to 82/55 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals extensive ecchymosis and guarding over the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. A bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) demonstrates a large anechoic stripe in the splenorenal recess. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Exploratory laparotomy
The correct response reflects the fundamental Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) algorithm. In a patient with blunt abdominal trauma, signs of shock (tachycardia, hypotension), failure to respond to an initial crystalloid bolus, and a positive FAST exam all point to massive, ongoing intraperitoneal hemorrhage. The standard of care is emergent transport to the operating room for an exploratory laparotomy to obtain surgical hemostasis. Any delay for further diagnostic workup increases mortality.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status following initial interventions.
The patient remains tachycardic and hypotensive despite receiving a fluid bolus, indicating ongoing, uncompensated hemorrhagic shock.
Hemodynamic stability is the primary decision node in the ATLS algorithm for blunt abdominal trauma.
2
Interpret the bedside imaging adjuncts.
The FAST exam shows an anechoic stripe in the splenorenal recess, confirming the presence of free intraperitoneal fluid (blood).
Identifies the anatomic cavity responsible for the blood loss.
3
Determine the definitive management pathway.
The combination of hemodynamic instability and a positive FAST exam dictates immediate surgical intervention.
Unstable patients with a known source of abdominal bleeding require exploratory laparotomy to surgically ligate or pack the bleeding vessels/organs.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST exam require immediate exploratory laparotomy.
Question 108Question →

A 34-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a single stab wound to the left lateral chest during an altercation. On arrival, he is in severe respiratory distress. His blood pressure is 82/50 mmHg, heart rate is 128/min, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Physical examination reveals a 3-cm linear laceration in the left 5th intercostal space at the mid-axillary line. Breath sounds are markedly diminished on the left side, and the trachea is deviated to the right. A needle thoracostomy is immediately performed, followed by placement of a left-sided tube thoracostomy. The chest tube yields a rush of air and 400 mL of dark blood. Following the procedure, the patient's oxygen saturation improves to 96% on supplemental oxygen, but his blood pressure remains 84/52 mmHg and heart rate is 125/min. A focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) exam reveals no pericardial effusion but demonstrates a large amount of anechoic fluid in the splenorenal recess. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Exploratory laparotomy
The correct answer is exploratory laparotomy. The patient has a penetrating wound to the thoracoabdominal region (between the 4th intercostal space and the costal margin). This anatomical zone carries a high risk of simultaneous thoracic and abdominal organ injuries due to diaphragmatic excursion. The patient initially presented with a tension pneumothorax, which was correctly managed with decompression. However, his persistent hemodynamic instability (blood pressure 84/52 mmHg) despite resolving the tension pneumothorax indicates an ongoing source of hemorrhagic shock. The chest tube output (400 mL) does not meet the threshold for emergent thoracotomy (typically >1500 mL immediately or >200 mL/hr). The positive FAST exam showing fluid in the splenorenal recess confirms massive intra-abdominal hemorrhage, likely from a splenic or diaphragmatic injury. In any hemodynamically unstable patient with a positive abdominal FAST exam, the definitive management is immediate exploratory laparotomy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's initial presentation and response to treatment.
The patient had a tension pneumothorax treated with a chest tube, yielding 400 mL of blood. However, he remains hemodynamically unstable (BP 84/52 mmHg).
Identifying persistent instability after resolving the initial thoracic issue indicates an ongoing source of hemorrhagic shock.
2
Analyze the anatomic location of the injury.
The stab wound is at the left 5th intercostal space, which falls within the thoracoabdominal region (inferior to the 4th intercostal space).
Penetrating injuries in this zone frequently involve the diaphragm and intra-abdominal organs, making abdominal injury highly likely.
3
Interpret the focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) exam results.
The FAST exam shows anechoic fluid in the splenorenal recess, confirming intraperitoneal bleeding.
A positive FAST exam in the setting of persistent hemodynamic instability localizes the life-threatening hemorrhage to the abdomen.
4
Determine the definitive next step in management.
The patient requires immediate exploratory laparotomy.
Hemodynamically unstable trauma patients with confirmed intra-abdominal hemorrhage must be taken directly to the operating room for surgical control.

Key Concept

Management of penetrating thoracoabdominal trauma with persistent hemodynamic instability and a positive abdominal FAST exam requires emergent exploratory laparotomy.
Question 109Question →

Emergency medical responders transport a 42-year-old bicyclist to the trauma center following a high-speed collision with a delivery van. Upon arrival, the patient is agitated, diaphoretic, and confused. Vital signs show a temperature of 36.4°C (97.5°F), blood pressure of 76/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 138/min, and respiratory rate of 28/min. Physical examination reveals extensive ecchymoses over the left lower thorax and a rigid, distended abdomen with diffuse rebound tenderness. The pelvis is stable to anteroposterior compression. A Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) reveals a large anechoic stripe in the splenorenal and hepatorenal recesses. The patient's personal belongings include a legally executed advance directive designating his sister as his healthcare proxy. His father arrives at the trauma bay simultaneously and demands to make all treatment decisions. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Proceed immediately to the operating room for an exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Proceed immediately to the operating room for an exploratory laparotomy
The correct action is immediate exploratory laparotomy. The patient has sustained blunt abdominal trauma and presents in hypovolemic shock with a positive FAST exam, which mandates urgent surgical hemorrhage control. Furthermore, because this is a life-threatening surgical emergency and the patient is incapacitated, the doctrine of implied consent applies. Care must not be delayed to contact the legal proxy (the sister) or to negotiate with the father.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's hemodynamic status and physical examination findings.
The patient is in Class III/IV hypovolemic shock (BP 76/40 mm Hg, HR 138/min) with signs of an acute surgical abdomen.
Hemodynamic instability fundamentally dictates the trauma algorithm pathway, ruling out time-consuming diagnostic imaging.
2
Interpret the adjunct imaging (FAST examination).
The FAST exam is unequivocally positive for intraperitoneal fluid.
A positive FAST in a hemodynamically unstable patient definitively localizes the source of life-threatening hemorrhage to the abdomen.
3
Determine the legal and ethical requirements for consent in this specific scenario.
The situation qualifies for emergency implied consent.
In life-threatening emergencies where the patient lacks capacity and the designated proxy is not immediately available to provide consent, physicians must provide life-saving treatment immediately without waiting for surrogate authorization.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with a positive FAST exam after blunt abdominal trauma require immediate exploratory laparotomy. Under the doctrine of implied consent, life-saving emergency interventions must not be delayed to obtain surrogate consent.
Question 110Question →

A 24-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motorcycle collision. He complains of severe pain in his left leg. Physical examination reveals a deformed left knee with an obvious posterior dislocation. The dislocation is promptly reduced in the emergency department. Afterward, palpation of the left pedal pulses reveals they are diminished compared to the right side. The patient remains hemodynamically stable. To evaluate for potential popliteal artery injury, the physician measures systolic blood pressures using a continuous-wave Doppler ultrasound and a sphygmomanometer. The following systolic pressures are recorded:

LocationArterySystolic Pressure (mmHg)
Right ArmBrachial130
Left ArmBrachial140
Right LegDorsalis Pedis135
Right LegPosterior Tibial138
Left LegDorsalis Pedis60
Left LegPosterior Tibial70

What is the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) of the injured extremity?

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Answer: 0.5

Answer

0.5
The correct Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) is 0.5. The ABI is a crucial non-invasive test used to screen for peripheral vascular injury, highly relevant after a posterior knee dislocation which carries a high risk of popliteal artery injury. To properly calculate the ABI, you must divide the highest systolic blood pressure at the ankle of the affected leg by the highest systolic blood pressure measured in either arm. In this patient, the highest left ankle pressure is the posterior tibial artery (70 mmHg70\text{ mmHg}). The highest brachial pressure out of both arms is the left arm (140 mmHg140\text{ mmHg}). Therefore, the ABI is 70/140=0.570 / 140 = 0.5. An ABI <0.9< 0.9 in the setting of trauma strongly suggests an arterial injury and requires immediate further evaluation, typically with a CT angiography. Notably, if the patient were hemodynamically unstable with hard signs of vascular injury (e.g., pulsatile bleeding, expanding hematoma, absent pulses), delaying for an ABI would be contraindicated, and the patient would require immediate surgical exploration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the highest ankle systolic pressure on the injured (left) extremity.
70 mmHg
The Ankle-Brachial Index uses the highest pressure measured from either the dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial artery of the affected limb.
2
Determine the highest brachial systolic pressure out of both arms.
140 mmHg
The denominator for the ABI calculation must always be the highest systemic systolic pressure, which represents the true central arterial pressure, regardless of which side is injured.
3
Calculate the ratio by dividing the result of Step 1 by the result of Step 2.
70 / 140 = 0.5
This yields the correct Ankle-Brachial Index. An ABI < 0.9 suggests vascular injury.

Key Concept

Calculation and interpretation of the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) in lower extremity trauma to assess for vascular injury.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 111Question →

A 45-year-old industrial worker is brought to the emergency department after a chemical vat exploded. He sustained deep partial-thickness burns. Physical examination reveals burns covering his entire anterior trunk (chest and abdomen), his entire right upper extremity (both anterior and posterior surfaces), and his entire right lower extremity (both anterior and posterior surfaces). No other areas of the body are affected.

Based on the Rule of Nines, what is the estimated total body surface area (TBSA) percentage affected by burns in this patient?

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Answer: 45

Answer

45
The adult Rule of Nines is a standardized method used to estimate the total body surface area (TBSA) affected by burns. It divides the body into sections representing multiples of 9%. In adults, the anterior trunk accounts for 18%, the posterior trunk accounts for 18%, each entire upper extremity accounts for 9%, each entire lower extremity accounts for 18%, the entire head and neck accounts for 9%, and the perineum accounts for 1%. For this patient, the calculation includes the anterior trunk (18%), the entire right upper extremity (9%), and the entire right lower extremity (18%). Adding these values together (18 + 9 + 18) yields a TBSA of 45%.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the percentage for the anterior trunk.
18%
According to the adult Rule of Nines, the anterior portion of the torso (chest and abdomen combined) is assigned 18%.
2
Determine the percentage for the entire right upper extremity.
9%
The entire arm (anterior and posterior surfaces combined) is assigned 9%.
3
Determine the percentage for the entire right lower extremity.
18%
The entire leg (anterior and posterior surfaces combined) is assigned 18%.
4
Sum the regional percentages to find the total body surface area (TBSA).
45%
18% + 9% + 18% = 45% total body surface area affected.

Key Concept

Estimation of burn size using the Rule of Nines
Question 112Question →

Match each clinical trauma presentation with the most appropriate next step in definitive management or diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 28-year-old male presents with a blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg and a heart rate of 135/min after a motorcycle crash; bedside ultrasound reveals anechoic fluid in the hepatorenal recess.
A 35-year-old female presents with a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg and a heart rate of 128/min after a pedestrian-versus-auto accident; radiograph shows a widened pubic symphysis, and abdominal ultrasound is negative.
A 45-year-old male presents with a blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg and a heart rate of 92/min after a frontal car collision; initial chest radiograph demonstrates an obscured aortic knob.
A 24-year-old male presents with a blood pressure of 75/40 mmHg and a heart rate of 142/min following a stab wound to the left parasternal border; physical examination reveals distended neck veins.

Matches

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Answer

Hemodynamically unstable patients with a positive FAST require exploratory laparotomy. Unstable patients with a pelvic fracture and negative FAST require a pelvic binder. Stable patients with a widened mediastinum require CT angiography. Unstable patients with penetrating chest trauma and Beck's triad require an urgent thoracotomy or pericardial window.
The core principle of trauma management is to match the intervention to the patient's hemodynamic stability and the most likely source of life-threatening injury identified during the primary survey. Unstable patients require bedside procedures or operating room interventions, whereas stable patients can safely undergo definitive advanced imaging.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the hemodynamic status of each patient.
Identify that three patients are hemodynamically unstable (hypotensive, tachycardic) and one patient is stable.
Hemodynamic instability precludes transport for advanced imaging like CT and dictates immediate bedside or operative intervention.
2
Identify the most likely source of life-threatening hemorrhage or shock.
Positive FAST indicates intra-abdominal bleed; negative FAST with pelvic fracture indicates retroperitoneal bleed; Beck's triad indicates cardiac tamponade.
The anatomical location of the injury determines the specific surgical or mechanical intervention.
3
Select the definitive management or diagnostic modality.
Match positive FAST to laparotomy, pelvic fracture to binder, stable widened mediastinum to CT angiography, and tamponade to thoracotomy/window.
To provide the correct standard of care and resolve the underlying cause of shock.

Key Concept

ATLS protocols for trauma management based on hemodynamic stability and primary survey findings.
Question 113Question →

Helicopter emergency medical services arrive at a regional burn center with a 50-year-old male who was extricated from a residential fire. The injury occurred exactly 3 hours prior to arrival. Upon presentation, he is intubated and mechanically ventilated. His estimated body weight is 80 kg. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 115/75 mm Hg and a heart rate of 112/min. Physical examination of the skin reveals blistering, weeping, and exquisitely tender lesions over the entire anterior trunk. The entire right lower extremity is covered in white, leathery, and insensate eschar. The entire left upper extremity exhibits diffuse erythema with intact epidermis, blanching on pressure, and no blistering. A large-bore peripheral intravenous catheter is successfully placed. Based on the most current Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) guidelines for adult thermal burns, what should the initial intravenous crystalloid infusion rate be set to in mL/hr?

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Answer: 576

Answer

The correct initial intravenous fluid infusion rate is 576 mL/hr.
Burn shock pathophysiology necessitates large-volume crystalloid resuscitation, guided by the most recent Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols. The current guideline for adult thermal burns is 2 mL of Lactated Ringer's per kg of body weight per percent of total body surface area (TBSA) burned. First, accurately estimate the TBSA using the Rule of Nines, strictly excluding first-degree burns (which present as simple erythema without blistering). The patient's 2nd- and 3rd-degree burns cover the anterior trunk (18%) and right leg (18%), totaling 36% TBSA. The 24-hour fluid requirement is 2 mL x 80 kg x 36 = 5,760 mL. Half of this volume (2,880 mL) must be delivered within the first 8 hours from the time of injury. Since the injury occurred 3 hours prior to presentation, the remaining time in this initial window is 5 hours. Therefore, the target infusion rate is 2,880 mL / 5 hours = 576 mL/hr.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify burns to include in calculation
Anterior trunk (18%) + right lower extremity (18%) = 36% TBSA
First-degree burns (left upper extremity) are excluded from fluid resuscitation formulas.
2
Calculate total 24-hour fluid volume
2 mL * 80 kg * 36 = 5,760 mL
Current ATLS guidelines recommend 2 mL/kg/%TBSA for adult thermal burns (changed from the traditional 4 mL/kg Parkland formula).
3
Calculate the volume required for the first 8 hours
5,760 mL / 2 = 2,880 mL
Half of the total calculated 24-hour fluid requirement must be given in the first 8 hours after the burn injury.
4
Calculate the hourly infusion rate for the remaining time in the first 8-hour window
2,880 mL / 5 hours = 576 mL/hr
The injury occurred 3 hours prior to arrival, so the first 8-hour volume must be infused over the remaining 5 hours.

Key Concept

Fluid resuscitation in thermal burns using the updated ATLS guidelines (2 mL/kg/%TBSA), appropriate Rule of Nines application excluding first-degree burns, and adjusting rates for pre-hospital time.
Estimated Time:2m 30s
Question 114Question →

Following a collision with a tree while skiing, a 21-year-old man is transported to the trauma center by medical helicopter. Upon arrival, his blood pressure is 82/45 mm Hg and his heart rate is 128/min. His respiratory rate is 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on high-flow oxygen. He appears pale and is confused, but localizes to painful stimuli. The airway is patent, and breath sounds are equal bilaterally. Examination reveals significant ecchymosis over the left lower chest wall and left upper quadrant of the abdomen. The abdomen is tender to palpation with involuntary guarding. The pelvis is mechanically stable to lateral and anteroposterior compression. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Focused assessment with sonography for trauma

Answer

Focused assessment with sonography for trauma
The correct answer is focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST). This patient is presenting with hemorrhagic shock following blunt trauma. His airway and breathing are intact, and his pelvis is stable, making the abdomen the most likely source of life-threatening bleeding (likely a splenic laceration given the left-sided impact). According to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols, the most appropriate next step to evaluate the abdomen in a hemodynamically unstable patient is a FAST exam. It is rapid, non-invasive, and can be performed at the bedside in the trauma bay to detect free intraperitoneal fluid (blood).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's hemodynamic status based on vital signs.
The patient is hemodynamically unstable (hypotensive at 82/45 mm Hg and tachycardic at 128/min), indicating Class III or IV hemorrhagic shock.
Hemodynamic status dictates the algorithmic approach to blunt trauma; unstable patients cannot leave the trauma bay.
2
Determine the most likely source of bleeding and the best modality to confirm it.
Given the left upper quadrant ecchymosis, tenderness, and clear breath sounds, intra-abdominal hemorrhage (e.g., splenic rupture) is highly suspected. A FAST exam is the best modality.
A FAST exam can be performed rapidly at the bedside to detect hemoperitoneum without delaying potential surgical intervention.

Key Concept

In hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma, the immediate diagnostic test of choice is bedside ultrasonography (FAST) to rapidly identify intra-abdominal hemorrhage without transporting the patient out of the resuscitation area.
Question 115Question →

A 29-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being crushed between a concrete loading dock and a reversing forklift. On arrival, his airway is patent, and breath sounds are equal bilaterally. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 76/40 mm Hg and a heart rate of 142/min. Physical examination reveals a mechanically unstable pelvis in response to anteroposterior compression. Genitourinary examination demonstrates a scrotal hematoma and a prominent drop of blood at the urethral meatus. A commercial pelvic binder is immediately applied, and a massive transfusion protocol is initiated. Ten minutes later, after the rapid infusion of uncrossmatched packed red blood cells and fresh frozen plasma, his blood pressure remains 78/42 mm Hg. A Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) examination demonstrates a large stripe of anechoic fluid in the hepatorenal and splenorenal recesses. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Exploratory laparotomy is the most appropriate next step to immediately control life-threatening intraperitoneal hemorrhage.
This patient is in persistent hemorrhagic shock following severe blunt trauma. The initial evaluation reveals two major potential sources of bleeding: a severe pelvic fracture (causing retroperitoneal hemorrhage) and an intra-abdominal solid organ injury (indicated by the positive FAST examination). According to standard ATLS algorithms, any hemodynamically unstable patient with a positive FAST examination must undergo immediate exploratory laparotomy. Intraperitoneal bleeding is rapidly fatal and must be controlled surgically before addressing the pelvic fracture or conducting further diagnostic studies. The pelvic binder was appropriately placed to temporarily tamponade the retroperitoneal space, bridging the patient to the operating room for laparotomy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status and mechanism of injury.
The patient is in severe, refractory hemorrhagic shock (BP 78/42 mm Hg) following blunt crush trauma, with evidence of pelvic and genitourinary injuries.
Hemodynamic instability dictates the immediate trauma algorithm, precluding routine diagnostic imaging.
2
Evaluate the source of the hemorrhage using the FAST examination.
The FAST examination is strongly positive for intraperitoneal free fluid.
Differentiating between retroperitoneal hemorrhage (from the fractured pelvis) and intraperitoneal hemorrhage (from intra-abdominal organs) determines the surgical approach.
3
Prioritize interventions based on Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) principles.
The positive FAST in an unstable patient mandates immediate exploratory laparotomy, superseding both pelvic-specific hemorrhage control and genitourinary diagnostics.
Intraperitoneal bleeding is rapidly fatal and must be surgically controlled before addressing the retroperitoneum or the urethral injury.

Key Concept

In a hemodynamically unstable trauma patient with a pelvic fracture, a positive FAST examination dictates immediate exploratory laparotomy to control intraperitoneal hemorrhage, taking absolute precedence over pelvic angiography or genitourinary evaluation.
Question 116Question →

Following a kick to the left flank by a horse, a 45-year-old man arrives at the trauma center. He complains of severe left-sided abdominal pain that radiates to his left shoulder. Upon arrival, he appears in significant distress. Vital signs are temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure 105/65 mm Hg, pulse 112/min, and respirations 18/min. Oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Two large-bore intravenous lines are established, and he is rapidly infused with 1 L of lactated Ringer solution. Following the fluid resuscitation, his blood pressure improves to 128/76 mm Hg and his pulse decreases to 88/min. Physical examination reveals ecchymosis over the left lower ribs and significant tenderness in the left upper quadrant with voluntary guarding. Breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. A bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) reveals a moderate amount of anechoic fluid in the splenorenal recess. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis

Answer

Computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis is the correct next step for a hemodynamically stable patient with a positive FAST exam.
The correct next step in management is a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis. This patient sustained blunt abdominal trauma and initially presented with mild hemodynamic compromise that completely resolved following a 1 L bolus of crystalloid fluids. Because his blood pressure and heart rate normalized, he is classified as a hemodynamic 'responder' and is currently considered hemodynamically stable. According to standard trauma protocols, hemodynamically stable patients with a positive FAST exam should undergo a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis. The CT scan is crucial for delineating the exact source of the bleeding, grading the severity of solid organ injuries (in this case, likely a splenic laceration given the left-sided impact and Kehr sign), and evaluating for any active arterial extravasation. This information allows the trauma team to determine if the patient can be safely managed non-operatively or if specific interventions, such as angioembolization or surgery, are required.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status before and after initial interventions.
The patient initially presented with borderline hemodynamics (tachycardia, low-normal blood pressure) but normalized entirely after receiving a 1 L crystalloid bolus, classifying him as a hemodynamic responder.
Hemodynamic stability is the primary decision point in the ATLS blunt abdominal trauma algorithm, dictating whether the patient can safely undergo imaging or requires immediate surgical control.
2
Evaluate the primary survey and bedside imaging findings.
The primary survey shows an intact airway and clear lungs. The FAST exam is positive for intraperitoneal free fluid in the splenorenal recess, and the patient has Kehr sign (left shoulder pain), highly suspicious for a splenic injury.
A positive FAST indicates intra-abdominal hemorrhage, confirming the abdomen as the source of the patient's initial hypovolemia.
3
Apply the blunt abdominal trauma management algorithm.
Because the patient is hemodynamically stable, the algorithm directs the provider to obtain cross-sectional imaging (CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis).
CT imaging characterizes the exact source of bleeding, grades the solid organ injury, identifies any active arterial extravasation (blush), and determines if non-operative management is safe or if embolization/surgery is definitively required.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically stable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST exam must undergo a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis to delineate the injury and evaluate the feasibility of non-operative management.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 117Question →

A 52-year-old man is transported to the trauma center by helicopter after a high-speed head-on motor vehicle collision. On arrival, he is confused and diaphoretic. His blood pressure is 82/54 mm Hg, heart rate is 128/min, and respiratory rate is 22/min. Oxygen saturation is 97% on a nonrebreather mask. The airway is secure, and breath sounds are present and equal bilaterally. The abdomen is grossly distended and rigid to palpation. Pelvic compression does not elicit instability. Intravenous access is established, and rapid fluid resuscitation with warmed crystalloid is initiated. A focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) examination reveals an anechoic stripe in the hepatorenal recess. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Exploratory laparotomy
This patient presents with hypovolemic shock (hypotension, tachycardia, diaphoresis) following blunt abdominal trauma. The focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) reveals an anechoic stripe in the hepatorenal recess (Morison's pouch), which confirms the presence of intraperitoneal fluid (blood). In the setting of hemodynamic instability and a positive FAST, the immediate standard of care is exploratory laparotomy to identify and control the source of intra-abdominal hemorrhage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status.
The patient is hemodynamically unstable, evidenced by a blood pressure of 82/54 mm Hg, heart rate of 128/min, confusion, and diaphoresis.
Hemodynamic stability is the primary decision branch point in the ATLS algorithm for evaluating blunt abdominal trauma.
2
Evaluate the primary survey findings to localize the source of bleeding.
The patient has a grossly distended and rigid abdomen with a positive FAST exam indicating intraperitoneal fluid (blood).
A positive FAST exam confirms that the peritoneal cavity is the source of the hemorrhagic shock.
3
Determine the definitive next step in management.
The patient must undergo an immediate exploratory laparotomy.
A hemodynamically unstable patient with evidence of ongoing intra-abdominal hemorrhage requires prompt surgical exploration to achieve definitive hemostasis.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and evidence of intraperitoneal hemorrhage on a FAST exam require immediate exploratory laparotomy.
Question 118Question →

Correlate the following classic clinical findings in blunt trauma patients with their most likely associated underlying injury.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Referred left shoulder pain following blunt abdominal trauma
Hypotension, jugular venous distention, and muffled heart sounds
Transverse linear ecchymosis across the lower abdomen after a motor vehicle collision
Palpable subcutaneous emphysema and a systolic precordial crunching sound

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Referred left shoulder pain correlates with Splenic laceration. Hypotension, JVD, and muffled heart sounds correlate with Cardiac tamponade. Transverse lower abdominal ecchymosis correlates with Mesenteric or hollow viscus injury. Subcutaneous emphysema with a crunching sound correlates with Tracheobronchial tree disruption.
Each classic trauma sign accurately correlates with a distinct pathophysiological process. Identifying these signs allows for rapid diagnosis and prioritization during the ATLS primary survey. Splenic laceration causes diaphragmatic irritation; tamponade restricts cardiac filling; seatbelts cause mesenteric shearing; and airway disruption introduces air into the mediastinum.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the mechanism of referred left shoulder pain.
Identify that it is caused by left hemidiaphragmatic irritation (phrenic nerve, C3-C5), which is classically caused by a bleeding spleen.
The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant, and rupture directly irritates the left diaphragm.
2
Analyze the triad of hypotension, JVD, and muffled heart sounds.
Recognize this as Beck triad, the classic clinical presentation of cardiac tamponade.
Pericardial fluid restricts ventricular filling, leading to obstructive shock and elevated right-sided pressures.
3
Interpret the significance of a seatbelt mark on the abdomen.
Correlate this specific ecchymosis with high-energy deceleration, leading to crushing or shearing of intra-abdominal contents.
Hollow viscera and the mesentery are particularly vulnerable to these specific shearing forces.
4
Determine the source of a precordial crunch (Hamman sign) and subcutaneous air.
Identify pneumomediastinum, most commonly resulting from injury to a major airway structure.
Disruption of the tracheobronchial tree allows air to track upward into the mediastinum and soft tissues of the chest.

Key Concept

Recognition of classic physical examination findings in trauma and their anatomical correlations.
Estimated Time:45s
Question 119Question →

Match each clinical trauma presentation with the most appropriate next step in definitive diagnosis or management.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

35-year-old male with a stab wound to Zone II of the neck, presenting with an expanding pulsatile hematoma and stridor.
45-year-old male in hemorrhagic shock following a motorcycle collision. FAST is negative, CXR is clear, and he remains hypotensive despite a pelvic binder and blood transfusion.
50-year-old male after a high-speed motor vehicle collision with unequal upper extremity blood pressures. He is hemodynamically stable with a widened mediastinum on chest X-ray.
22-year-old male with a severe crush injury to the pelvis. Physical examination reveals blood at the urethral meatus and a high-riding prostate on digital rectal examination.

Matches

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Answer

Stab wound with hard signs matches with immediate surgical exploration; unstable pelvic fracture with negative FAST matches with pelvic angiography with embolization; stable patient with widened mediastinum matches with CT angiography of the chest; pelvic injury with meatal blood matches with retrograde urethrography.
Each presentation maps to a specific therapeutic or diagnostic pathway: hard signs in neck trauma dictate surgery; unstable pelvic bleeding without an intraperitoneal source requires angiography; stable blunt aortic injury requires CT angiography; and signs of urethral injury mandate retrograde urethrography prior to any catheterization attempt.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the penetrating neck trauma presentation.
Identify 'hard signs' of aerodigestive and vascular injury.
Hard signs in any zone of the neck dictate immediate operative intervention over diagnostic imaging.
2
Evaluate the hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma patient.
Recognize that hemorrhagic shock with a negative FAST and clear CXR localizes the bleeding to the retroperitoneum.
Laparotomy is ineffective for retroperitoneal bleeding from pelvic fractures; angiography is required.
3
Assess the hemodynamically stable MVC patient.
Identify high suspicion for blunt aortic injury.
Hemodynamic stability permits transportation to the CT scanner for definitive non-invasive imaging.
4
Examine the pelvic crush injury presentation.
Identify contraindications to blind Foley catheterization.
Catheterization can worsen a urethral tear; imaging of the urethra is the required next step.

Key Concept

Algorithms for acute trauma management based on mechanism of injury, anatomic location, and hemodynamic stability.
Question 120Question →

A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after falling 20 feet from a roof. He is unconscious, hypotensive, and has obvious facial trauma. Arrange the following steps of his initial assessment and management in the correct chronological order according to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence for the ATLS primary survey is: Airway and cervical spine stabilization, Breathing and ventilation, Circulation and hemorrhage control, Disability (neurologic evaluation), and Exposure/environmental control.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) primary survey follows a strict chronological protocol designed to identify and treat the most rapidly fatal injuries first. The sequence is 'ABCDE': Airway maintenance with cervical spine restriction, Breathing and ventilation, Circulation with hemorrhage control, Disability (neurologic status), and Exposure/environmental control. Adhering to this order ensures that hypoxia and severe shock are reversed before focusing on focal neurologic deficits or hidden, less acute injuries.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Prioritize the airway and cervical spine
Assess airway patency and secure the airway with manual in-line cervical spine stabilization.
Airway compromise is the most rapidly fatal complication in trauma. Cervical spine injury must be assumed in any high-energy blunt trauma.
2
Ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation
Evaluate chest wall motion, auscultate breath sounds, and apply supplemental oxygen.
Once the airway is patent, oxygen delivery to the lungs must be confirmed to prevent hypoxia.
3
Assess and support hemodynamics
Assess peripheral pulses, control any compressible hemorrhage, and establish large-bore intravenous access.
Hemorrhagic shock is the most common cause of preventable death in trauma; it must be addressed immediately after oxygenation.
4
Perform a rapid neurologic evaluation
Determine the Glasgow Coma Scale score and evaluate bilateral pupillary responses.
A baseline neurologic status is needed to identify traumatic brain injury and signs of increased intracranial pressure.
5
Expose the patient fully
Completely undress the patient to inspect for hidden injuries while actively preventing hypothermia.
Full exposure is necessary to avoid missing hidden trauma, but hypothermia exacerbates trauma-induced coagulopathy and must be prevented.

Key Concept

Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) Primary Survey Sequence
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