A 48-year-old woman is evaluated during a routine health maintenance visit. She has no current medical complaints and feels well. Her surgical history is significant for a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingectomy performed three years ago for symptomatic uterine fibroids. Her ovaries were preserved. Review of her medical records shows that her most recent cervical cancer screening, performed four years ago prior to her surgery, revealed atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US) with a negative high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) test. She has no prior history of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 2, CIN 3, or cervical cancer, and she has not undergone any screening tests since her operation. She is in a monogamous relationship and does not smoke. Vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in screening for this patient?
- Discontinue cervical cancer screeningAnswer
- BPerform vaginal cuff cytology alone
- CPerform vaginal cuff cytology and hrHPV co-testing
- DPerform a screening transvaginal ultrasound
- ESchedule a screening colposcopy of the vaginal vault