A 76-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer and stage 4 chronic kidney disease is admitted to the hospital for management of severe, intractable bone pain. He is started on escalating doses of oral morphine. Over the next 48 hours, his pain control improves, but he develops worsening confusion, visual hallucinations, and frequent myoclonic jerks in his upper extremities. The patient's daughter, who is his designated healthcare proxy, is very distressed by these new symptoms. She demands that all opioid medications be stopped immediately, stating they are "destroying his brain." The patient is currently disoriented to time and place and cannot participate in medical decision-making. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue oral morphine and initiate intravenous fentanylAnswer
- BRequest a psychiatric consultation to determine the patient's legal competence to make his own medical decisions
- CContinue the current morphine regimen and administer intravenous haloperidol
- DDischarge the patient to a skilled nursing facility to undergo intensive cognitive rehabilitation
- EWithhold all opioid medications and initiate high-dose ibuprofen