During a scheduled visit to the anticoagulation clinic, a 67-year-old man with a mechanical mitral valve replacement undergoes point-of-care testing, which reveals an International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 7.4. He takes warfarin 5 mg daily, and his past INR results have consistently been well-controlled between 2.5 and 3.5. Four days ago, an urgent care physician prescribed a course of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for acute cystitis. The patient notes that his dysuria has resolved. He explicitly denies experiencing hematuria, epistaxis, gingival bleeding, black tarry stools, or new bruising. Vital signs include a blood pressure of 128/78 mmHg and a heart rate of 76/min. Physical examination shows no evidence of petechiae, ecchymoses, or focal neurologic deficits.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Omit the next 1 to 2 doses of warfarin and recheck the International Normalized Ratio in 24 to 48 hoursAnswer
- BAdminister oral phytonadione and withhold the next dose of warfarin
- CAdminister four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate and intravenous phytonadione
- DContinue the current warfarin dose and immediately switch the antibiotic to nitrofurantoin
- EOrder a non-contrast computed tomography scan of the head to rule out intracranial hemorrhage