A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic due to a 1-year history of worsening intention tremor and unsteadiness while walking. He also reports recent difficulties with short-term memory and executive function, such as managing his finances. His medical history is notable for hypertension. His family history is significant; his daughter is healthy, but his 8-year-old maternal grandson has been diagnosed with intellectual disability, a long face, prominent ears, and macroorchidism. On physical examination, the patient exhibits a bilateral intention tremor, broad-based ataxic gait, and symmetrical parkinsonian features including mild rigidity. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain reveals generalized cerebral atrophy and symmetrically increased T2-weighted signal in the middle cerebellar peduncles. Which of the following best describes the underlying molecular mechanism responsible for this patient's current neurologic symptoms?
- Accumulation of toxic messenger RNAAnswer
- BHypermethylation of a promoter region
- CExpansion of a polyglutamine tract
- DMicrovascular ischemic white matter injury
- EHeteroplasmic mitochondrial DNA mutations