A 45-year-old woman is hospitalized due to a 3-day history of high fever, dry cough, and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. She underwent a living-donor renal transplant 6 months ago for end-stage renal disease secondary to IgA nephropathy. Her current medications include tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and prednisone. Temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Oxygen saturation is on room air. Physical examination reveals crackles over the right upper lung field. Laboratory studies show:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Leukocyte count | |
| Blood urea nitrogen | |
| Serum creatinine | (baseline ) |
A non-contrast CT scan of the chest demonstrates a 3-cm dense nodule with surrounding ground-glass opacity (halo sign) in the right upper lobe. Serum *Aspergillus* galactomannan antigen testing is markedly positive. Blood cultures are pending. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- ADelay antifungal therapy until bronchoalveolar lavage cultures finalize
- BInitiate fluconazole and maintain the current dose of tacrolimus
- CInitiate liposomal amphotericin B and increase the dose of tacrolimus
- DInitiate voriconazole and maintain the current dose of tacrolimus
- Initiate voriconazole and decrease the dose of tacrolimusAnswer