A 72-year-old female resident of a skilled nursing facility is brought to the emergency department due to sudden, severe, diffuse abdominal pain that began three hours ago. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease stage 4 (baseline serum creatinine 2.8 mg/dL, eGFR 18 mL/min/1.73m²), and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. She is not currently taking anticoagulants due to a history of recurrent falls. On arrival, her temperature is 37.6°C (99.7°F), blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg, pulse is 118/min and irregularly irregular, and respiratory rate is 22/min. Physical examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen with minimal tenderness to deep palpation; there is no guarding or rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. Initial laboratory studies show a white blood cell count of 16,500/mm³ and a serum lactate level of 4.8 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnostic imaging?
- Computed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvisAnswer
- BNon-contrast computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- CMesenteric duplex ultrasonography
- DMagnetic resonance angiography of the abdomen
- EPostponement of cross-sectional imaging until after aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation and repeat renal function testing