A 26-year-old woman is evaluated in the hematology clinic prior to a scheduled elective cholecystectomy due to an incidentally discovered prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) on routine preoperative laboratory screening. She reports a history of heavy menstrual bleeding necessitating the use of oral contraceptives. She also states she experienced prolonged bleeding following a wisdom tooth extraction 5 years ago. She has no history of deep venous thrombosis, joint swelling, or spontaneous bruising. Her family history is unremarkable for known bleeding disorders. Physical examination is within normal limits with no petechiae or ecchymoses.
Laboratory results:
Prothrombin time (PT): 11 seconds (Normal: 11-15 sec)
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): 48 seconds (Normal: 25-35 sec)
Platelet count:
A mixing study with normal pooled plasma is performed. The patient's aPTT corrects to 29 seconds immediately, and remains 30 seconds after a 2-hour incubation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in laboratory evaluation?
- von Willebrand factor antigen, ristocetin cofactor activity, and Factor VIII coagulant activityAnswer
- BDilute Russell viper venom time and hexagonal phase phospholipid neutralization assay
- CFactor VIII inhibitor assay (Bethesda assay)
- DFactor IX, Factor XI, and Factor XII coagulant activity assays
- EPlatelet aggregometry and flow cytometry for surface glycoproteins