A 54-year-old man undergoes evaluation for a 1-week history of progressively worsening pain with swallowing and retrosternal burning. His medical history is notable for a deceased-donor renal transplantation 3 years ago. His daily maintenance immunosuppressive regimen consists of tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and prednisone. Temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure is 128/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min. Physical examination reveals easily removable white plaques on the buccal mucosa and soft palate. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy demonstrates adherent, whitish plaques throughout the middle and distal esophagus. The physician decides to initiate targeted therapy with oral fluconazole. Which of the following is the most appropriate concurrent pharmacologic management step for this patient?
- Preemptively decrease the tacrolimus dosageAnswer
- BPreemptively increase the tacrolimus dosage
- CDiscontinue mycophenolate mofetil during antifungal therapy
- DSubstitute cyclosporine for tacrolimus
- EUtilize intravenous amphotericin B instead of fluconazole