A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on the third day of admission for community-acquired pneumonia. He was initially started on intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin. The patient reports feeling significantly better, with a marked decrease in his cough and complete resolution of his shortness of breath. He has been afebrile for the past hours and is tolerating a regular diet without difficulty.
Vital signs are:
Temperature: ()
Blood pressure:
Heart rate:
Respiratory rate:
Oxygen saturation: on room air
Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of , which has decreased from on admission. A chest radiograph obtained this morning demonstrates a persistent right lower lobe consolidation, which is unchanged compared to the admission radiograph.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ABroaden the antibiotic regimen to include coverage for methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus*
- BContinue intravenous antibiotics until the chest radiograph shows clearance of the consolidation
- Transition to an oral antibiotic regimen and arrange for hospital dischargeAnswer
- DObtain a computed tomography scan of the chest to evaluate for underlying malignancy
- EPerform a diagnostic bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage