A 28-year-old woman presents to the ambulatory care clinic for evaluation of vague, intermittent right upper quadrant abdominal discomfort that has been present for the past three months. She has no significant past medical history other than a 10-year history of taking combined oral contraceptive pills. Vital signs are within normal limits, and physical examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen with no palpable hepatomegaly. Laboratory studies, including liver function tests, basic metabolic panel, alpha-fetoprotein, and CA 19-9, are all within normal limits. Given her persistent symptoms, a multiphasic contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the liver is performed. The MRI reveals a solitary, 6-cm, well-demarcated lesion in the right hepatic lobe. During the arterial phase, the lesion demonstrates robust, homogeneous hyperenhancement. On the portal venous and delayed phases, the lesion becomes isointense to the surrounding normal liver parenchyma. A central stellate structure is identified within the lesion; this structure is hyperintense on T2-weighted sequences and demonstrates progressive contrast enhancement on the delayed phase. Based on the precise interpretation of these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Reassurance and routine clinical observationAnswer
- BDiscontinuation of oral contraceptives and serial ultrasound surveillance
- CImage-guided percutaneous core needle biopsy
- DSurgical resection of the hepatic lesion
- EWhole-body fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography scan