A 61-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a 4-day history of high-grade fevers, a nonproductive cough, and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. She underwent an orthotopic liver transplant 7 months ago for primary biliary cholangitis. Her home medications include tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and low-dose prednisone. Vital signs show a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F), blood pressure of 118/74 mm Hg, pulse of 102/min, and respiratory rate of 20/min. Pulse oximetry is 96% on room air. Laboratory studies reveal a serum creatinine of 1.1 mg/dL and normal liver function tests. A non-contrast computed tomography scan of the chest demonstrates a 3-cm nodular opacity in the right upper lobe surrounded by a halo of ground-glass attenuation. Serum galactomannan assay is strongly positive. The medical team plans to initiate intravenous voriconazole therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate management step regarding this patient's pharmacologic regimen?
- Reduce the tacrolimus dose to one-third of the current amount and closely monitor trough concentrationsAnswer
- BIncrease the tacrolimus dose by 50 percent and closely monitor trough concentrations
- CWithhold mycophenolate mofetil to prevent profound azole-mediated myelosuppression
- DMaintain current immunosuppressive dosing and administer liposomal amphotericin B instead of voriconazole
- EDiscontinue prednisone to prevent acute adrenal crisis secondary to azole-induced enzyme inhibition