A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic for evaluation of a painless ulcer on his penis that appeared one week ago. He has no other symptoms and feels well. He is sexually active with multiple partners. His medical history is significant for an episode of severe anaphylaxis, including throat swelling and hypotension, after receiving amoxicillin at age 12. He takes no daily medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a 1.5-cm, indurated, painless ulcer with a clean base on the glans penis. There is bilateral, non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. Dark-field microscopy of a sample from the ulcer exudate shows motile spirochetes. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient?
- Oral doxycyclineAnswer
- BIntramuscular penicillin G benzathine
- CIntramuscular ceftriaxone
- DOral azithromycin
- EInpatient penicillin desensitization followed by intramuscular penicillin G benzathine