A 68-year-old man comes to the outpatient clinic for a follow-up examination regarding his heart failure. He was diagnosed with New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) six months ago. An echocardiogram at that time showed a left ventricular ejection fraction of . His past medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and severe bilateral renal artery stenosis that was diagnosed via magnetic resonance angiography two years ago. His current medications include carvedilol, furosemide, and atorvastatin. The patient reports stable dyspnea on exertion but denies orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, or recent weight gain. Vital signs include a blood pressure of and a regular heart rate of . Physical examination reveals a jugular venous pressure of . The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally, and there is no lower extremity edema. Laboratory studies show:
Serum sodium:
Serum potassium:
Blood urea nitrogen:
Serum creatinine:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacologic management to reduce this patient's long-term mortality?
- Initiate hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrateAnswer
- BInitiate ivabradine
- CInitiate lisinopril
- DInitiate spironolactone
- EInitiate verapamil