A 49-year-old premenopausal female is evaluated in the medical oncology clinic to discuss adjuvant therapy following a recent lumpectomy and sentinel lymph node biopsy. Pathology demonstrated a 1.5-cm, estrogen receptor-positive, progesterone receptor-positive, and HER2-negative invasive ductal carcinoma. Margins were negative, and no lymph nodes were involved. She completed adjuvant radiation therapy last week and is now scheduled to begin endocrine therapy. Her past medical history includes major depressive disorder, which has been well-controlled on paroxetine for the past 4 years. She currently reports no depressive symptoms but complains of moderate daily hot flashes. Vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. The oncologist plans to start tamoxifen. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation regarding this patient's pharmacotherapy?
- Discontinue paroxetine and initiate venlafaxineAnswer
- BDiscontinue paroxetine and initiate fluoxetine
- CInitiate anastrozole instead of tamoxifen and continue paroxetine
- DContinue paroxetine and initiate tamoxifen at a higher starting dose
- EContinue paroxetine, initiate tamoxifen, and monitor serum endoxifen levels