A 45-year-old woman is evaluated in an urgent care clinic for a painful skin lesion on her left lower extremity. She states that she noticed a small "spider bite" three days ago that has progressively enlarged and become exquisitely tender. Her past medical history is notable for major depressive disorder, which is well-controlled on fluoxetine. She was also hospitalized six months ago for severe *Clostridioides difficile* colitis after receiving a course of antibiotics for sinusitis. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F), blood pressure is 122/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Physical examination of the left calf reveals a 4-cm fluctuant nodule surrounded by a 6-cm area of intense erythema, induration, and warmth. Bedside ultrasound confirms a localized fluid collection. An incision and drainage procedure is performed, yielding 20 mL of purulent exudate. Given the significant surrounding cellulitis and the high local prevalence of community-acquired methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA), the physician decides to initiate empiric oral antibiotic therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention?
- AAmoxicillin-clavulanate
- BLinezolid
- Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazoleAnswer
- DClindamycin
- ECephalexin