A 52-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital for worsening erythema, warmth, and swelling of her right lower extremity. She was admitted 3 days ago for severe cellulitis and was started on empiric intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam. Her past medical history is significant for major depressive disorder and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her home medications, which were continued on admission, include citalopram, metformin, and insulin glargine.
Today, her temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is , and respiratory rate is . The erythema on her right leg has expanded proximally despite 72 hours of antimicrobial therapy. Blood cultures drawn on admission remain negative, but a tissue culture obtained from the leading edge of the cellulitis on admission grows *Enterococcus faecium*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing reveals resistance to ampicillin and vancomycin. Renal function is within normal limits.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient?
- Discontinue vancomycin and start daptomycinAnswer
- BDiscontinue vancomycin and start linezolid
- CDiscontinue vancomycin and start ampicillin-sulbactam
- DDiscontinue vancomycin and start ceftaroline
- EIncrease the dose of intravenous vancomycin