A -year-old man is evaluated in the outpatient psychiatry clinic during a routine follow-up. He has a history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia and was started on clozapine weeks ago. The patient reports a significant reduction in auditory hallucinations and feels that his mood has stabilized. He currently has no somatic complaints, including no fever, sore throat, cough, or dysuria. His vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure , heart rate , and respiratory rate . Physical examination is unremarkable.
A complete blood count drawn today reveals:
White blood cell count:
Absolute neutrophil count:
His baseline absolute neutrophil count prior to initiating therapy was . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Continue clozapine and increase the frequency of absolute neutrophil count monitoring to three times weeklyAnswer
- BDiscontinue clozapine immediately and transition to a different atypical antipsychotic
- CSuspend clozapine and admit the patient to the hospital for reverse isolation and prophylactic antibiotics
- DPerform a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy to evaluate for evolving aplastic anemia
- EAdd carbamazepine to the current regimen to augment the antipsychotic effect and stimulate leukocytosis