A 54-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for a sudden-onset, agonizing headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as the most severe headache she has ever experienced, noting that it reached peak intensity within seconds. She also reports photophobia and nausea. Her medical history is notable for essential hypertension and a 20-pack-year smoking history. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 165/95 mmHg, pulse of 92/min, and respiratory rate of 16/min. Physical examination reveals photophobia and resistance to passive neck flexion. There are no focal motor or sensory deficits. A non-contrast head computed tomography (CT) scan is performed immediately and shows no evidence of intracranial hemorrhage or mass effect. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?
- Lumbar punctureAnswer
- BComputed tomography angiography of the head
- CMagnetic resonance imaging of the brain without contrast
- DObservation with repeat non-contrast head computed tomography in 24 hours
- EDischarge home with reassurance and outpatient neurology follow-up