A 71-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for new-onset tachypnea and pleuritic chest pain. He was admitted one week ago for severe community-acquired pneumonia requiring mechanical ventilation, from which he was successfully extubated yesterday. He has a history of severe chronic kidney disease with a baseline glomerular filtration rate of , not currently on dialysis. Vital signs today include a heart rate of , blood pressure , and oxygen saturation of on room air. A computed tomography scan of the chest with intravenous contrast reveals a saddle pulmonary embolus. An intravenous anticoagulant relying on a highly sulfated glycosaminoglycan to bind an endogenous protease inhibitor is initiated. Four days later, routine laboratory studies reveal a platelet count of , decreased from a baseline of on admission. No new medications have been added, and physical examination is unremarkable except for mild bilateral lower extremity edema. A specific functional platelet assay returns positive. The initial anticoagulant is immediately discontinued. Based on the patient's underlying comorbidities, which of the following best describes the molecular mechanism of the most appropriate alternative therapy?
- Reversible occupancy of the active catalytic site of factor IIaAnswer
- BIndirect inhibition of factor Xa via antithrombin activation
- CInhibition of the vitamin K epoxide reductase enzyme complex
- DActivation of antithrombin with a preferential inhibitory effect on factor Xa
- EDirect binding and inactivation of free and clot-bound factor Xa