A 48-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for a 3-day history of fever, pleuritic chest pain, and hemoptysis. He underwent a deceased-donor renal transplant 4 months ago for end-stage renal disease secondary to IgA nephropathy. His current medications include tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and prednisone. Temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine of . A CT scan of the chest demonstrates a right upper lobe cavitary lesion with a surrounding halo of ground-glass opacity. Serum galactomannan assay is prominently elevated. The attending physician plans to initiate the first-line targeted antimicrobial therapy for this patient's opportunistic infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate concurrent pharmacologic management step?
- Decrease the current dose of tacrolimusAnswer
- BReplace tacrolimus with cyclosporine
- CInitiate intravenous fluconazole instead of the planned therapy
- DInitiate liposomal amphotericin B instead of the planned therapy
- EMaintain the current tacrolimus dose and recheck serum creatinine in 14 days