A 54-year-old man with a mechanical mitral valve replacement is maintained on a stable daily dose of warfarin. His international normalized ratio (INR) has been consistently in the therapeutic range of to for the past six months. He presents to the urgent care clinic with a 2-day history of purulent drainage from a leg wound and is prescribed a 7-day course of oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Four days later, he comes to the emergency department reporting recurrent epistaxis and large ecchymoses on his trunk. Laboratory evaluation reveals an INR of . Which of the following is the most significant pharmacokinetic mechanism responsible for this patient's current laboratory findings?
- AEradication of normal intestinal flora leading to reduced endogenous vitamin K synthesis
- BDisplacement of the anticoagulant from its binding sites on plasma albumin
- Inhibition of the cytochrome P450-mediated metabolism of the more potent enantiomerAnswer
- DInhibition of the renal tubular secretion of the unchanged anticoagulant
- EDown-regulation of the vitamin K epoxide reductase complex in the liver
Answer
Inhibition of the cytochrome P450-mediated metabolism of the more potent enantiomer
The correct mechanism is the inhibition of the cytochrome P450-mediated metabolism of the more potent enantiomer. Warfarin is a racemic mixture, and its S-enantiomer provides the majority of the anticoagulant effect. Because S-warfarin is exclusively metabolized by the hepatic enzyme CYP2C9, any drug that inhibits this enzyme will drastically reduce warfarin clearance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is a potent CYP2C9 inhibitor. Its addition to the patient's regimen blocked the metabolism of S-warfarin, leading to drug accumulation, an exaggerated anticoagulant effect, and clinical bleeding.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Pharmacokinetic drug-drug interactions involving cytochrome P450 2C9 inhibition