During a routine follow-up appointment, a physician evaluates a female patient who reports weeks of progressive exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, and lower extremity swelling. The patient is years old and has a past medical history significant for type diabetes mellitus, essential hypertension, and osteoarthritis. Her home medication regimen consists of metformin, pioglitazone, lisinopril, amlodipine, and daily naproxen.
On physical examination, her blood pressure is , heart rate is , and respiratory rate is . Jugular venous distention is present at above the sternal angle. Auscultation of the lungs reveals fine bibasilar crackles. The lower extremities exhibit bilateral pitting edema. A comprehensive metabolic panel is unremarkable, with a serum creatinine of . A recent transthoracic echocardiogram demonstrates a left ventricular ejection fraction of with global hypokinesis.
Based on the current clinical findings and medication profile, which of the following pharmacologic interventions are appropriate for this patient? (Select all that apply)
- Discontinue pioglitazoneAnswer
- Discontinue naproxenAnswer
- Initiate oral furosemideAnswer
- DDiscontinue metformin
- EInitiate oral diltiazem