A -year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital for persistent fever. She was admitted two days ago with right-sided flank pain, dysuria, and a temperature of (). Her medical history is significant for complex partial seizures, which have been well-controlled on valproic acid for the past five years, and type diabetes mellitus. Upon admission, she was started on empiric intravenous ceftriaxone for severe pyelonephritis.
Today, her temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is , and respiratory rate is . Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine of (baseline ).
Blood and urine cultures drawn on admission are both growing *Escherichia coli*. The microbiology laboratory confirms that the isolate is an extended-spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) producer. The susceptibility profile is as follows:
Ceftriaxone: Resistant
Cefepime: Resistant
Piperacillin-tazobactam: Susceptible
Meropenem: Susceptible
Amikacin: Susceptible
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- ASwitch to intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- BSwitch to intravenous meropenem and increase the valproic acid dose
- Switch to intravenous meropenem and transition valproic acid to levetiracetamAnswer
- DSwitch to intravenous amikacin
- EWithhold antibiotic changes until repeat blood cultures confirm persistent bacteremia