Emergency medical services bring a 64-year-old man to the emergency department after he collapsed at his workplace. Prior to losing consciousness, he complained of an agonizing, tearing pain radiating to his interscapular region. Upon arrival, he is lethargic and pale. Vital signs are temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure 75/40 mmHg in the right arm and 60/35 mmHg in the left arm, heart rate 132/min, and respiratory rate 26/min. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Physical examination reveals prominently distended neck veins. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Cardiac auscultation reveals distant heart sounds and a high-pitched, decrescendo diastolic murmur heard most loudly at the right upper sternal border. Radial pulses are markedly weaker on the left compared to the right. A point-of-care ultrasound of the heart demonstrates a large pericardial effusion with right ventricular collapse during diastole. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?
- AEmergent bedside pericardiocentesis
- BAdministration of intravenous labetalol
- CComputed tomography angiography of the chest
- Immediate cardiothoracic surgery consultation and cautious intravenous fluid administrationAnswer
- EAdmission to the intensive care unit for continuous hemodynamic monitoring