A 34-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for a 6-month history of secondary amenorrhea, milky nipple discharge, and new-onset headaches. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. On physical examination, vital signs are within normal limits. Neurologic examination reveals a bitemporal hemianopsia on confrontation visual field testing. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Initial laboratory studies show a serum prolactin concentration of 65 ng/mL (reference range: 4-25 ng/mL) and a thyroid-stimulating hormone level of 1.4 µU/mL. A magnetic resonance imaging scan of the brain with sellar sequences demonstrates a 2.8-cm pituitary mass with suprasellar extension and compression of the optic chiasm. Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in the diagnostic workup for this patient? (Select all that apply)
- Repeat measurement of serum prolactin using a serial dilution of the sampleAnswer
- Evaluation of the remaining anterior pituitary axes, including insulin-like growth factor 1 and morning cortisolAnswer
- CAssessment of serum macroprolactin using polyethylene glycol precipitation
- DStereotactic transsphenoidal biopsy of the sellar mass
- EInferior petrosal sinus sampling to localize the source of hormone hypersecretion