A 55-year-old man comes to the physician's office to discuss the management of his newly diagnosed atrial fibrillation. His medical history is notable for major depressive disorder, which is currently untreated. The physician calculates his CHA2DS2-VASc score and recommends initiating apixaban to reduce the risk of ischemic stroke. Upon hearing this, the patient becomes visibly tense and states, "I read on a health blog that those blood thinners cause people to bleed to death internally. I am absolutely not taking that. Besides, a friend told me I should just take St. John's wort to help my depression instead of starting all these dangerous prescription drugs."
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial communication by the physician?
- It sounds like you have significant concerns about the safety of these treatments. Can you tell me more about what you read regarding the bleeding risks?Answer
- BYour refusal of a highly indicated medication for stroke prevention suggests you lack the legal competence to make this decision, requiring us to contact a surrogate.
- CSt. John's wort is a reasonable natural alternative for your mood, as it bypasses liver metabolism and will not have pharmacokinetic interactions with apixaban.
- DTo reassure you about the safety of this drug, we will postpone the prescription and order a full-body CT scan today to rule out any underlying aneurysms.
- EThe negative predictive value of our bleeding risk scores remains fixed regardless of your baseline risk factors, assuring you that severe bleeding will not occur.