During a scheduled ambulatory clinic visit, a -year-old woman reports a -day history of escalating pain and swelling in her left lower extremity. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, diabetic nephropathy, and morbid obesity. Her current medications include nifedipine, sitagliptin, and subcutaneous insulin detemir. Blood pressure is mmHg, pulse is /min, and respirations are /min. Pulse oximetry shows on room air. Physical examination reveals that the left calf is erythematous, warm, and measures cm larger in circumference than the right calf. A compressive duplex ultrasonography reveals an acute, noncompressible thrombus in the left popliteal vein. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin: g/dL
Platelet count: /mm
Serum creatinine: mg/dL
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR): mL/min/ m
The patient is hemodynamically stable with normal oxygenation. The physician determines she is an appropriate candidate for immediate outpatient management of her deep vein thrombosis.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient?
- Oral apixabanAnswer
- BSubcutaneous enoxaparin
- COral rivaroxaban
- DOral dabigatran
- EIntravenous unfractionated heparin