A -year-old woman is evaluated in the clinic following a recent non-traumatic T12 vertebral compression fracture. A dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan reveals a T-score of at the lumbar spine and at the femoral neck. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease. Five years ago, she developed a provoked deep vein thrombosis following orthopedic surgery. Twelve years ago, she underwent lumpectomy followed by localized external beam radiation therapy for early-stage right breast cancer. Current medications include amlodipine, metformin, and cholecalciferol.
Vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory studies are as follows:
| Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Serum calcium | mg/dL | mg/dL |
| Serum phosphorus | mg/dL | mg/dL |
| 25-hydroxyvitamin D | ng/mL | ng/mL |
| Intact parathyroid hormone | pg/mL | pg/mL |
| Estimated glomerular filtration rate | mL/min/ | mL/min/ |
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention to reduce this patient's risk of future fractures?
- Subcutaneous denosumabAnswer
- BOral alendronate
- CIntravenous zoledronic acid
- DSubcutaneous teriparatide
- EOral raloxifene