A 59-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 3-week history of severe fatigue, night sweats, and intermittent chills. His past medical history is significant for benign prostatic hyperplasia with recurrent urinary tract infections, as well as chronic kidney disease stage 4 secondary to hypertensive nephrosclerosis. His baseline estimated glomerular filtration rate is 22 mL/min/1.73 m². Current home medications include amlodipine, tamsulosin, and sodium bicarbonate. On examination, temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), blood pressure is 138/85 mm Hg, and pulse is 96/min. Cardiovascular examination reveals a new 3/6 holosystolic murmur loudest at the cardiac apex. Dermatologic examination shows several painful, violaceous nodules on the palmar aspects of the fingers. Transesophageal echocardiography demonstrates a 1.2-cm oscillating vegetation on the mitral valve. Blood cultures are drawn, and all four bottles grow *Enterococcus faecalis*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing reveals the isolate is susceptible to ampicillin, vancomycin, and linezolid, with no high-level aminoglycoside resistance detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive intravenous pharmacotherapy for this patient's infection?
- Ampicillin and ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BAmpicillin and gentamicin
- CVancomycin and gentamicin
- DLinezolid
- ECeftriaxone and azithromycin