A -year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for new-onset right flank pain and gross hematuria. He was admitted days ago for the treatment of a proximal deep vein thrombosis of the left lower extremity. His past medical history is significant for a mechanical aortic valve replacement years ago, for which he takes warfarin. On admission, his international normalized ratio (INR) was due to several missed doses. He was started on a therapeutic dose of subcutaneous enoxaparin, and his home dose of warfarin was restarted.
Current vital signs are: temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Physical examination shows right costovertebral angle tenderness. The left lower extremity edema is unchanged.
Laboratory results today show:
Platelet count: (Admission: )
Creatinine:
INR:
A CT venogram of the abdomen and pelvis confirms a right renal vein thrombosis.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacologic management?
- Discontinue enoxaparin, discontinue warfarin, administer vitamin K, and initiate intravenous argatrobanAnswer
- BDiscontinue enoxaparin, continue warfarin, and initiate intravenous argatroban
- CDiscontinue enoxaparin, discontinue warfarin, initiate intravenous argatroban, and administer a platelet transfusion
- DDiscontinue warfarin, continue enoxaparin, and add an intravenous unfractionated heparin infusion
- EDiscontinue enoxaparin, discontinue warfarin, and hold all anticoagulation until the platelet count exceeds 150,000/mm³