A 34-year-old woman is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for follow-up of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Three days ago, she presented to the emergency department with left leg swelling and was diagnosed with an unprovoked left popliteal DVT. She was discharged with a prescription for rivaroxaban. Her past medical history is significant for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with polyarthritis, well-controlled on hydroxychloroquine. She also has a history of two consecutive spontaneous abortions at 10 and 12 weeks of gestation. Current medications are rivaroxaban and hydroxychloroquine. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows mild left lower extremity pitting edema.
Laboratory studies obtained during the emergency department visit are reviewed:
Hemoglobin: 12.2 g/dL
Platelet count: 130,000/mm³
Prothrombin time (PT): 13 seconds (normal: 11-15 seconds)
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): 62 seconds (normal: 25-40 seconds)
A 1:1 mixing study with normal plasma yields an aPTT of 58 seconds.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient's deep vein thrombosis?
- Discontinue rivaroxaban and initiate enoxaparin bridged to warfarinAnswer
- BContinue current rivaroxaban therapy and add low-dose aspirin
- CDiscontinue rivaroxaban and initiate apixaban
- DDiscontinue rivaroxaban and initiate argatroban
- EDiscontinue rivaroxaban and initiate dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel