A 74-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his family due to the sudden onset of severe, unrelenting abdominal pain that began hours ago. He reports the pain is diffuse, in intensity, and associated with one episode of non-bilious emesis. He has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and permanent atrial fibrillation. He was previously prescribed apixaban but stopped taking it three weeks ago because he could not afford the refill.
Vital signs are: temperature (), blood pressure mmHg, pulse /min and irregularly irregular, and respirations /min.
Physical examination reveals a patient in obvious distress, writhing on the stretcher. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable except for an irregularly irregular rhythm. Abdominal examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen with normal bowel sounds. There is diffuse mild tenderness to deep palpation, but no rebound, guarding, or rigidity is present.
Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count:
Serum creatinine: mg/dL (baseline mg/dL)
Serum lactate: mmol/L
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in imaging?
- Computed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvisAnswer
- BNon-contrast computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- CCatheter-directed digital subtraction angiography
- DMagnetic resonance angiography of the abdomen
- ETransthoracic echocardiography