A 68-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance 30 minutes after his wife noticed him slurring his words and unable to move his right arm and leg. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 16/min. Neurologic examination reveals right-sided facial droop, right-sided hemiparesis, and expressive aphasia. Which of the following are the most appropriate immediate next steps in the diagnostic workup? (Select two)
- Non-contrast computed tomography of the headAnswer
- Point-of-care capillary blood glucoseAnswer
- CMagnetic resonance imaging of the brain
- DTransthoracic echocardiography
- ELumbar puncture
Answer
The most appropriate immediate next steps are to obtain a non-contrast computed tomography of the head and a point-of-care capillary blood glucose measurement.
In a patient presenting with acute focal neurologic deficits highly suspicious for stroke, the immediate priority is to determine candidacy for reperfusion therapy (e.g., thrombolysis). This requires two immediate tests: a non-contrast head CT to rapidly rule out intracranial hemorrhage (an absolute contraindication to thrombolytics), and a point-of-care blood glucose test to rule out severe hypoglycemia, which can present as a stroke mimic.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
The hyperacute evaluation of a suspected ischemic stroke requires immediate exclusion of intracranial hemorrhage via non-contrast CT and exclusion of hypoglycemia via a point-of-care blood glucose check.