A 66-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for a 4-day history of severe, non-bloody diarrhea. She reports having up to 10 watery bowel movements daily, accompanied by diffuse abdominal cramping and a low-grade fever. She has a history of metastatic melanoma and began therapy with pembrolizumab 6 weeks ago. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 108/min. Physical examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen with hyperactive bowel sounds, but no rebound tenderness or guarding. Laboratory studies show a serum potassium of 3.1 mEq/L and an elevated C-reactive protein. Stool PCR for *Clostridioides difficile* and routine enteric stool cultures are negative. A flexible sigmoidoscopy reveals diffuse mucosal erythema, loss of vascular pattern, and patchy ulcerations. Biopsy demonstrates a dense lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate expanding the lamina propria. In addition to intravenous fluid resuscitation, which of the following is the most appropriate targeted intervention and its corresponding immunopathologic rationale?
- Intravenous methylprednisolone; to suppress unrestricted T-cell activation resulting from the blockade of negative costimulatory signalsAnswer
- BOral vancomycin; to empirically treat a resistant *Clostridioides difficile* infection that evaded detection on initial high-sensitivity testing
- CLoperamide; to provide symptomatic relief of colonic hypermotility while awaiting pharmacokinetic clearance of the monoclonal antibody
- DIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam; to prevent bacterial translocation secondary to direct cytotoxic disruption of the rapidly dividing intestinal epithelium
- ESupportive care and delayed follow-up colonoscopy; to allow for spontaneous resolution of immune complex deposition in the intestinal microvasculature