A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for persistent hypotension. He was admitted 12 hours ago for severe community-acquired pneumonia and was empirically started on intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin. His medical history includes hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and stage 3a chronic kidney disease. Since admission, he has received a total of 4 liters of intravenous lactated Ringer solution. His current vital signs are temperature 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure 80/52 mmHg (mean arterial pressure 61 mmHg), heart rate 118/min, and respiratory rate 22/min. Oxygen saturation is 94% on a high-flow nasal cannula. Bedside echocardiography demonstrates hyperdynamic left ventricular function and a distended inferior vena cava with minimal respiratory variation. Urine output over the past 4 hours has been 15 mL/hr. Which of the following is the most appropriate next pharmacologic intervention?
- Initiate an intravenous norepinephrine infusionAnswer
- BInitiate an intravenous dopamine infusion
- CInitiate an intravenous dobutamine infusion
- DAdminister intravenous hydrocortisone
- EAdminister an additional 1 L bolus of lactated Ringer solution