During morning rounds in the cardiac intensive care unit, the medical team reviews the chart of a 61-year-old female who was admitted five days ago for an acute anterior myocardial infarction complicated by a left ventricular mural thrombus. She has been receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparin since admission. Her daily laboratory results show a platelet count of , a precipitous decline from her baseline of upon admission. On physical examination, she reports new-onset right lower extremity pain, and subsequent compression ultrasonography reveals an acute deep vein thrombosis in the right popliteal vein. Suspecting heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), the attending physician immediately discontinues the heparin infusion and initiates a continuous infusion of argatroban. The team discusses the long-term plan to discharge the patient on oral warfarin therapy.
Which of the following is the most appropriate protocol for monitoring this patient's recovery and transitioning her to the planned oral anticoagulant?
- Postpone the initiation of warfarin until the platelet count reaches at least , then overlap both medications for a minimum of 5 days.Answer
- BInitiate warfarin concurrently with argatroban today and discontinue argatroban once the international normalized ratio is therapeutic for 48 hours.
- CDiscontinue argatroban once the platelet count normalizes, and immediately begin warfarin monotherapy to minimize the risk of bleeding.
- DTransition the patient to a therapeutic dose of subcutaneous enoxaparin while awaiting platelet recovery, then initiate warfarin.
- EOrder a serotonin release assay; if the result is negative, resume unfractionated heparin and initiate a standard warfarin bridge.