A 34-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a routine health maintenance visit. Six months ago, she was diagnosed with Crohn disease involving the terminal ileum and colon. Her disease is currently in clinical remission on a maintenance regimen of infliximab and azathioprine. She feels well and reports no abdominal pain, diarrhea, or weight loss. She works as a high school teacher. Review of her immunization records reveals she received all standard childhood vaccines but has not received any immunizations since age 18. Laboratory evaluation shows negative varicella-zoster virus IgG antibodies. Her vital signs and physical examination today are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the preventive management of this patient?
- Administer the 20-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccineAnswer
- BAdminister the live-attenuated varicella vaccine
- CSchedule a screening colonoscopy
- DOrder a computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- EDelay all routine immunizations until immunosuppressive therapy is discontinued