A 61-year-old woman comes to the clinic to discuss the results of a recent dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan. The scan reveals a T-score of -2.8 at the lumbar spine and -2.3 at the femoral neck. Her past medical history is significant for an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis 4 years ago, for which she completed a 6-month course of anticoagulation, and gastroesophageal reflux disease. The physician explains the diagnosis of osteoporosis and recommends initiating oral alendronate. The patient becomes visibly anxious and states, "I read an article online about people whose jawbones completely rotted away after taking those pills. I am absolutely terrified of that happening. I refuse to take them and will just manage this with over-the-counter calcium supplements." Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Explore the patient's underlying fears and assess her understanding of the medication's overall risks and benefitsAnswer
- BRecommend switching to raloxifene as an alternative therapy to alleviate her anxiety about jaw necrosis
- CAgree to a trial of calcium monotherapy and schedule a repeat bone density scan in two years
- DConsult psychiatry to evaluate the patient's legal competence to refuse medically indicated treatment
- EOrder a panoramic dental radiograph to objectively evaluate her baseline risk before continuing the discussion