A -year-old man presents to the urgent care clinic with a -day history of excruciating pain in his right big toe. The pain awoke him from sleep and is so severe that he cannot tolerate the weight of his bedsheets. His medical history is significant for ischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of , chronic kidney disease stage 4, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia. His current medications include carvedilol, sacubitril-valsartan, empagliflozin, furosemide, and atorvastatin. Vital signs show a blood pressure of mm Hg, heart rate of /min, and temperature of C. Physical examination reveals a markedly erythematous, swollen, and exquisitely tender right first metatarsophalangeal joint. The remainder of the joint examination is unremarkable. Laboratory studies from one week ago showed a serum creatinine of mg/dL (estimated glomerular filtration rate mL/min/ m ) and a hemoglobin A1c of . Joint aspiration is deferred as the clinical presentation is highly classic for podagra. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic therapy for this patient's acute joint condition?
- Intra-articular methylprednisoloneAnswer
- BOral indomethacin
- COral colchicine
- DOral allopurinol
- EOral probenecid