A -year-old man is hospitalized for a -day history of right-sided pleuritic chest pain, nonproductive cough, and subjective fevers. Eighteen months ago, he underwent bilateral lung transplantation for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. His daily medications include tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, prednisone, and pantoprazole. He is also receiving therapeutic subcutaneous enoxaparin for a provoked deep vein thrombosis diagnosed weeks ago.
Vital signs show a temperature of (), heart rate of , blood pressure of , and respiratory rate of . Oxygen saturation is on room air.
Laboratory studies are as follows:
Leukocyte count:
Platelet count:
Serum creatinine:
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST):
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT):
A chest computed tomography (CT) scan reveals a dense consolidation in the right upper lobe surrounded by a halo of ground-glass attenuation. Serum galactomannan assay is markedly elevated. The patient is diagnosed with invasive pulmonary aspergillosis, and the decision is made to initiate intravenous voriconazole.
Which of the following is the most appropriate concurrent pharmacologic intervention?
- Reduce the maintenance dose of tacrolimusAnswer
- BIncrease the maintenance dose of tacrolimus
- CTransition the enoxaparin to oral rivaroxaban
- DAdd intravenous micafungin to overcome intrinsic azole resistance
- EDiscontinue mycophenolate mofetil due to the current leukocyte count