A 29-year-old woman comes to the outpatient clinic for a routine follow-up to discuss the results of a recent sexually transmitted infection screening. The nucleic acid amplification test is positive for *Chlamydia trachomatis*. When the physician discusses the results, the patient becomes visibly distressed. She confides that she had a single unprotected sexual encounter with a coworker during a business trip three weeks ago. She states, "You absolutely cannot tell my husband. If he finds out I cheated on him, or worse, gave him a disease, he will kill me." She reports a history of severe physical abuse by her husband, including an incident two years ago that resulted in a fractured orbital floor requiring surgical repair. The physician confirms the patient currently feels safe returning home as long as her husband remains unaware of the diagnosis. The patient is prescribed a 7-day course of doxycycline. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Submit the standard communicable disease report to the local health department while explicitly requesting they waive standard partner notification protocols.Answer
- BOmit the patient's diagnosis from the mandatory state health department reporting system to maintain absolute confidentiality and prevent partner tracing.
- CInitiate expedited partner therapy by providing a second prescription of doxycycline for the patient to give to her husband.
- DDirectly inform the husband of his potential exposure to a communicable disease, citing the legal duty to protect third parties from harm.
- EPlace the patient on an involuntary psychiatric hold for her own protection until law enforcement can intervene.