An independent -year-old gentleman is brought to the emergency department by emergency medical services after his wife found him unable to walk. He reports severe, unrelenting pain between his shoulder blades that started days ago. Over the past hours, he developed profound weakness in both legs and an inability to void.
His medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hemodialysis-dependent end-stage renal disease, and sick sinus syndrome. He had a permanent dual-chamber pacemaker implanted years ago; device interrogation reveals it is a legacy, non-MRI-conditional model.
Vital signs include a temperature of (), blood pressure of , heart rate of , and respiratory rate of . Physical examination demonstrates marked point tenderness over the T9 and T10 spinous processes. Neurologic evaluation reveals strength in the proximal and distal lower extremities bilaterally. There is absent sensation to pinprick and temperature below the level of the umbilicus. Patellar and Achilles reflexes are bilaterally with sustained clonus, and a Babinski sign is present bilaterally. Post-void residual volume by bladder scan is .
Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of . The physician suspects a spinal epidural abscess with acute cord compression.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in imaging?
- Computed tomography (CT) myelography of the thoracic spineAnswer
- BMagnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the thoracic spine with intravenous gadolinium
- CNon-contrast computed tomography (CT) of the thoracic spine
- DIntravenous contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) of the thoracic spine
- ERadionuclide bone scintigraphy