A 74-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from a long-term care facility due to worsening confusion and fever over the past 24 hours. He has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia and relies on an indwelling Foley catheter.
On arrival, the patient is obtunded. His skin is warm and flushed.
Vital signs are:
Temperature: 39.4°C (102.9°F)
Blood pressure: 74/42 mm Hg
Pulse: 124/min
Respirations: 24/min
Oxygen saturation: 95% on room air.
The urinary catheter bag contains cloudy, dark urine.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
- Rapid infusion of intravenous crystalloid fluidsAnswer
- BAdministration of intravenous norepinephrine
- CComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- DTransthoracic echocardiography
- EImmediate transfer to the intensive care unit
Answer
Rapid infusion of intravenous crystalloid fluids
The correct answer involves the immediate administration of intravenous crystalloid fluids. This patient is in septic shock, indicated by his severe hypotension, compensatory tachycardia, altered mental status, fever, and a suspected urinary source. The foundation of initial stabilization for septic shock is prompt and aggressive fluid resuscitation (typically 30 mL/kg of crystalloids) to treat the relative hypovolemia caused by systemic vasodilation and capillary leak. This step must be taken immediately upon presentation to restore end-organ perfusion.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
The immediate management of septic shock requires aggressive hemodynamic stabilization with intravenous crystalloid fluids prior to advanced imaging, vasopressor use, or unit transfer.