A 65-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit. He was admitted 12 days ago for status epilepticus and subsequently developed ventilator-associated pneumonia. He was intubated and received continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. His seizures have been well controlled on enteral phenytoin suspension, requiring a high dose of 400 mg every 8 hours to maintain a therapeutic total serum trough level of 16 mcg/mL. His pneumonia is being treated with intravenous meropenem.
Today, the patient's respiratory status has significantly improved, and he is extubated. The continuous enteral feeds are discontinued, and he successfully passes a swallowing evaluation. He is advanced to a standard oral diet and is scheduled to transition to oral phenytoin capsules. His serum albumin is 3.5 g/dL. Renal and hepatic functions are within normal limits.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's pharmacotherapy?
- Empirically reduce the phenytoin dose and closely monitor serum trough levelsAnswer
- BContinue the same total daily dose of phenytoin and monitor for clinical signs of nystagmus or ataxia
- CMeasure a serum free phenytoin level to account for the transition from suspension to capsules
- DSubstitute meropenem with cefepime to prevent accelerated hepatic clearance of the antiepileptic
- EMaintain the same total daily dose but check a trough level 1 hour after the first oral capsule dose