A 68-year-old man presents to the ambulatory care clinic with a 1-day history of severe pain, swelling, and redness in his left knee. The pain began abruptly and is exacerbated by any movement or weight-bearing. His medical history is significant for long-standing hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and stage 4 chronic kidney disease with a recent estimated glomerular filtration rate of . Vital signs show a temperature of (), blood pressure of , and heart rate of . Physical examination reveals a warm, erythematous, and swollen left knee with a detectable effusion. Arthrocentesis is performed. Synovial fluid analysis reveals a leukocyte count of (predominantly neutrophils). Gram stain is negative, and polarized light microscopy demonstrates numerous needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient's acute symptoms?
- Intra-articular triamcinoloneAnswer
- BOral indomethacin
- COral colchicine
- DOral allopurinol
- EIntravenous ceftriaxone