A -year-old man presents to the clinic for a routine diabetes follow-up. He has a -year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. His current medications include metformin twice daily, amlodipine daily, atorvastatin daily, and aspirin daily. He feels well and reports no polyuria, polydipsia, or peripheral edema.
Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure , and heart rate . Physical examination reveals diminished vibratory sensation in both feet but is otherwise unremarkable.
Laboratory results are as follows:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Hemoglobin A1c | |
| Serum sodium | |
| Serum potassium | |
| Serum creatinine | (baseline two years ago) |
| Estimated GFR |
Urinalysis shows microalbuminuria but no hematuria or cellular casts.
Based on the laboratory findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's pharmacotherapy?
- Reduce the metformin dosage to twice daily and recheck renal function in months.Answer
- BContinue the current medication regimen and schedule a follow-up basic metabolic panel in year.
- CDiscontinue metformin completely and initiate daily basal insulin injections.
- DMaintain the current regimen and obtain a renal duplex ultrasound.
- ERefer the patient for a percutaneous renal biopsy to evaluate the etiology of renal decline.