A 64-year-old man is hospitalized for an acute deep vein thrombosis of the right lower extremity. He is promptly started on a continuous unfractionated heparin infusion. On admission (hospital day 1), his platelet count is 240,000/mm³. On hospital day 5, routine morning laboratory studies reveal a platelet count of 90,000/mm³. The patient remains hemodynamically stable, reports no new symptoms, and physical examination reveals no petechiae, ecchymoses, or signs of active bleeding. His right leg swelling has improved. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Discontinue the unfractionated heparin and initiate an argatroban infusionAnswer
- BContinue the current unfractionated heparin infusion and monitor daily platelet counts
- CDiscontinue the unfractionated heparin and initiate therapeutic enoxaparin
- DDiscontinue the unfractionated heparin and initiate warfarin
- ETransfuse one unit of apheresis platelets
Answer
Discontinue the unfractionated heparin and initiate an argatroban infusion
The correct answer correctly identifies that a >50% drop in platelet count occurring 5 to 10 days after the initiation of unfractionated heparin is highly suspicious for Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT). The most critical initial step in managing suspected HIT is the immediate discontinuation of all heparin products. Furthermore, because HIT is a highly prothrombotic state, patients require immediate anticoagulation with a non-heparin agent, such as a direct thrombin inhibitor (argatroban or bivalirudin) or fondaparinux, to prevent life-threatening thrombotic complications.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Monitoring for and managing Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)